A 10-year-old child cut his leg with a piece of glass and was sent to a clinic for an anti-tetanus serum injection. In order to prevent the development of anaphylactic shock, the Besredka desensitization method was applied. What mechanism underlies this method?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct choice is A: Binding to IgE fixed to mast cells. The Besredka desensitization method involves injecting small, gradually increasing doses of the allergen to induce tolerance and prevent anaphylactic shock. This process works by binding the allergen to IgE antibodies fixed to mast cells, which prevents the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators that trigger allergic reactions. This desensitization process helps the immune system become less reactive to the allergen over time. Incorrect choices: B: Inhibited synthesis of mast cells mediators - This choice does not reflect the mechanism of the Besredka desensitization method, which involves binding to IgE on mast cells. C: Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance - While this may sound plausible, the Besredka method specifically targets the IgE-mast cell interaction. D: Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG synthesis - While IgG antibodies may play a role in desensitization, the

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Parenteral introduction of antitetanus serum. The symptoms described in the question, such as bilateral ptosis, mydriatic pupils, and difficulty reading, are indicative of tetanus infection. The source of infection could be the scratch on the knee, which allowed the tetanus bacteria to enter the body. The most appropriate therapy for tetanus is the administration of antitetanus serum to neutralize the tetanus toxin. Antibotulinic serum (choice A) is not appropriate as it is used for botulism, which presents differently. Disintoxication (choice B) is too general and does not address the specific cause of the symptoms. Antibiotics (choice C) are not effective in treating tetanus because it is caused by a toxin, not a bacterial infection. Therefore, the correct course of action is to administer antitetanus serum to the patient.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candida fungi. Candida fungi are known to cause oral thrush, characterized by whitish spots on the oral mucosa. The presence of gram-positive oval budding cells in the smear preparations is indicative of Candida species. Staphylococci (choice B) are gram-positive cocci, not oval budding cells. Sarcinae (choice C) are gram-positive bacteria that form cuboidal packets, not oval budding cells. Actinomycetes (choice D) are filamentous gram-positive bacteria, not oval budding cells like Candida fungi.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because penicillins and cephalosporins inactivate transpeptidase activity of penicillin binding proteins, leading to disruption of bacterial cell wall synthesis. This mechanism makes them bactericidal, not bacteriostatic (choice B). Choice C is incorrect as penicillins and cephalosporins target cell wall synthesis, not the cytoplasmic membrane. Choice D is incorrect as option A is the correct statement.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct choice is A: Binding to IgE fixed to mast cells. The Besredka desensitization method involves injecting small, gradually increasing doses of the allergen to induce tolerance and prevent anaphylactic shock. This process works by binding the allergen to IgE antibodies fixed to mast cells, which prevents the release of histamine and other inflammatory mediators that trigger allergic reactions. This desensitization process helps the immune system become less reactive to the allergen over time. Incorrect choices: B: Inhibited synthesis of mast cells mediators - This choice does not reflect the mechanism of the Besredka desensitization method, which involves binding to IgE on mast cells. C: Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance - While this may sound plausible, the Besredka method specifically targets the IgE-mast cell interaction. D: Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG synthesis - While IgG antibodies may play a role in desensitization, the

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BSL4. Ebola viruses are highly infectious and pose a high risk to laboratory workers. BSL4 facilities are designed to handle agents that pose a severe threat to human health and have no available vaccines or treatments. These facilities have strict guidelines for handling infectious agents, including full-body suits, negative air pressure, and decontamination processes to prevent any possible exposure. BSL1, BSL2, and BSL3 are not adequate for handling Ebola viruses due to their lower levels of containment and safety measures.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clostridium tetani. Clostridium tetani produces tetanospasmin, a neurotoxin causing tetanus. It enters the body through wounds and affects the nervous system. A: Clostridium botulinum produces botulinum toxin causing botulism, not tetanus. C: Streptococcus pneumoniae causes pneumonia, not tetanus. D: Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis, not tetanus.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: rotaviruses. Rotaviruses are the most common cause of infectious diarrhea in infants and children due to their highly contagious nature and ability to spread easily in childcare settings. They are known to cause severe diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration in young children. Noroviruses (A), adenoviruses (B), and caliciviruses (D) can also cause diarrhea, but rotaviruses are specifically known for their prevalence and severity in the pediatric population. This is why C is the correct answer.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Within 24 hours. Rabies post-exposure prophylaxis should ideally be initiated as soon as possible after a potentially infectious bite to prevent the virus from spreading and causing symptoms. Immediate treatment is crucial to prevent the virus from reaching the central nervous system. Waiting beyond 24 hours increases the risk of the virus reaching the brain and becoming fatal. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because waiting for 6 months, a week, or 2 weeks respectively would significantly delay treatment, allowing the virus to progress and potentially become untreatable.