A 10-year-old child cut his leg with a glass shard, when playing, and was delivered to outpatient department to receive anti-tetanus serum. To prevent development of anaphylactic shock the serum was introduced by Bezredka method. This method of organism hyposensitization is based on the following mechanism:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Binding of mast cell-fixed IgE. The Bezredka method involves introducing small amounts of the antigen to which the individual is allergic, leading to the binding of mast cell-fixed IgE. This process desensitizes the immune system and prevents anaphylactic shock by reducing the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells. Rationale: 1. A: Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG2 is incorrect because the Bezredka method primarily targets IgE, not IgG2. 2. B: Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance is incorrect as this method aims to block the allergic response rather than induce tolerance. 3. D: Blocking of mast cell mediators synthesis is incorrect because the Bezredka method does not directly inhibit the synthesis of mast cell mediators, but rather blocks their release by binding IgE.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: RTECS number. The Registry of Toxic Effects of Chemical Substances (RTECS) number is a unique identifier assigned to chemicals and substances known to cause toxicological effects. It aids in accessing detailed toxicological information such as acute toxicity, carcinogenicity, and mutagenicity. The CAS number (A) is a unique numerical identifier for chemical compounds, not specifically for toxicological information. The atomic number (B) is the number of protons in an element's nucleus, unrelated to toxicology. The DOT ID number (C) is used for hazardous materials transportation, not for toxicological information. Therefore, the RTECS number is the correct choice for finding toxicological information about a specific substance.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trichomonas vaginalis. Trichomonas vaginalis is a flagellated protozoa that causes the sexually transmitted infection trichomoniasis. The presence of an undulating membrane in vaginal discharge samples is characteristic of Trichomonas vaginalis. Giardia lamblia causes gastrointestinal illness, not vaginal infections. Trypanosoma brucei causes African sleeping sickness transmitted by tsetse flies. Leishmania donovani causes visceral leishmaniasis transmitted by sandflies.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Streptococcus pneumoniae, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, and Escherichia coli can all cause pneumonia, but through different mechanisms. S. pneumoniae is a common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, M. tuberculosis can lead to tuberculosis-related pneumonia, and E. coli can cause pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals. Therefore, all three bacteria can be responsible for causing pneumonia, making option D the correct choice. Option A, Streptococcus pneumoniae, is correct but does not cover all possible causes of pneumonia. Option B, Mycobacterium tuberculosis, is too specific and does not include other common causes. Option C, Escherichia coli, is also a possible cause of pneumonia but does not account for all potential pathogens.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anaerobic. Pulpitis is an inflammatory condition of the dental pulp, often caused by bacterial infection. Anaerobic bacteria are commonly associated with dental infections, making it likely to find them in the inoculated culture medium. Anaerobic bacteria thrive in the absence of oxygen, which is typical of the dental environment. Acid-resistant (B) and acidophilic (C) microorganisms are not specifically linked to pulpitis. Haemolytic (D) microorganisms typically lyse red blood cells, which is not a characteristic feature of bacteria causing pulpitis. Therefore, the most likely microorganisms to be found in the culture medium would be anaerobic bacteria.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because spheroplasts are bacteria with defective cell walls that have a parietal layer (peptidoglycan layer) and a defective peptidoglycan layer. This is because spheroplasts have lost their rigid cell wall structure, leading to an incomplete peptidoglycan layer. Choice B is incorrect as the cytoplasmic membrane is not directly affected by the loss of cell wall integrity. Choice C is incorrect because spheroplasts do not have an outer membrane defect, but rather a defect in the peptidoglycan layer. Choice D is incorrect because spheroplasts still have peptidoglycan, even though it is defective.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Binding of mast cell-fixed IgE. The Bezredka method involves introducing small amounts of the antigen to which the individual is allergic, leading to the binding of mast cell-fixed IgE. This process desensitizes the immune system and prevents anaphylactic shock by reducing the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells. Rationale: 1. A: Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG2 is incorrect because the Bezredka method primarily targets IgE, not IgG2. 2. B: Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance is incorrect as this method aims to block the allergic response rather than induce tolerance. 3. D: Blocking of mast cell mediators synthesis is incorrect because the Bezredka method does not directly inhibit the synthesis of mast cell mediators, but rather blocks their release by binding IgE.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry, meaning it has a spherical shape with 20 equilateral triangular faces. This symmetry is common in many viruses and allows for efficient packaging of genetic material. Choice A is incorrect because the rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface. These spikes help the virus attach to host cells. Choice B is incorrect because the rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. This envelope plays a role in viral entry into host cells. Choice C is incorrect because the rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. Its genetic material is single-stranded RNA, not DNA. In summary, the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry and possesses glycoprotein spikes, an envelope, and ssRNA genetic material, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: PCR. PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is the most suitable method for detecting genitourinary chlamydiosis due to its high sensitivity and specificity in detecting the genetic material of Chlamydia trachomatis. PCR can detect even low levels of the pathogen, providing accurate results. A: Cultural diagnostic is not as sensitive as PCR and may take longer to produce results. B: ELISA detects antibodies, which may not be present in early stages of infection, leading to false-negative results. C: CFT (Complement Fixation Test) is an older method with lower sensitivity compared to PCR for detecting chlamydiosis.