A 10-year-old child cut his leg with a glass shard, when playing, and was delivered to outpatient department to receive anti-tetanus serum. To prevent development of anaphylactic shock the serum was introduced by Bezredka method. This method of organism hyposensitization is based on the following mechanism:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Binding of mast cell-fixed IgE. The Bezredka method involves introducing small amounts of the antigen to which the individual is allergic, leading to the binding of mast cell-fixed IgE. This process desensitizes the immune system and prevents anaphylactic shock by reducing the release of histamine and other mediators from mast cells. Rationale: 1. A: Stimulation of antigen-specific IgG2 is incorrect because the Bezredka method primarily targets IgE, not IgG2. 2. B: Stimulation of the immunological antigen tolerance is incorrect as this method aims to block the allergic response rather than induce tolerance. 3. D: Blocking of mast cell mediators synthesis is incorrect because the Bezredka method does not directly inhibit the synthesis of mast cell mediators, but rather blocks their release by binding IgE.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct method of laboratory diagnostics for suspected malaria is blood examination. Malaria is diagnosed by detecting the presence of the Plasmodium parasite in the patient's blood. This can be done through microscopy to identify the parasite in a blood smear or through rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) that detect specific antigens produced by the parasite. Blood examination allows for the direct visualization of the parasite, making it the most accurate method for diagnosing malaria. Immunological tests, stool examination, and urine examination are not suitable for diagnosing malaria as the parasite primarily resides in the red blood cells. Stool and urine examinations are more commonly used for diagnosing gastrointestinal or urinary tract infections, respectively.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acid-fast stain. This stain is used for diagnosing tuberculosis due to the unique cell wall composition of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, which resists decolorization by acid-alcohol. This allows the bacteria to retain the primary stain (carbol fuchsin) and appear red under a microscope. Gram stain (B) is not suitable for Mycobacterium tuberculosis as it is gram-positive but does not retain the crystal violet-iodine complex. Negative stain (C) is not used for bacterial identification. Simple stain (D) does not differentiate acid-fast bacteria like Mycobacterium tuberculosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because spheroplasts are bacteria with defective cell walls that have a parietal layer (peptidoglycan layer) and a defective peptidoglycan layer. This is because spheroplasts have lost their rigid cell wall structure, leading to an incomplete peptidoglycan layer. Choice B is incorrect as the cytoplasmic membrane is not directly affected by the loss of cell wall integrity. Choice C is incorrect because spheroplasts do not have an outer membrane defect, but rather a defect in the peptidoglycan layer. Choice D is incorrect because spheroplasts still have peptidoglycan, even though it is defective.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry, meaning it has a spherical shape with 20 equilateral triangular faces. This symmetry is common in many viruses and allows for efficient packaging of genetic material. Choice A is incorrect because the rubella virus does have glycoprotein spikes on its surface. These spikes help the virus attach to host cells. Choice B is incorrect because the rubella virus does have an envelope derived from the host cell membrane. This envelope plays a role in viral entry into host cells. Choice C is incorrect because the rubella virus is an ssRNA virus, not ssDNA. Its genetic material is single-stranded RNA, not DNA. In summary, the rubella virus has icosahedral symmetry and possesses glycoprotein spikes, an envelope, and ssRNA genetic material, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Antitoxic passive immunity. Antibotulinic serum contains pre-formed antibodies against the botulinum toxin, providing immediate protection to the patient. This is passive immunity as the patient does not produce their antibodies but receives them externally. Choice B is incorrect as botulism is not an infection, so the patient does not develop infection immunity. Choice C is incorrect because active immunity involves the body producing its antibodies after exposure to an antigen, which is not the case here. Choice D is incorrect as antimicrobic immunity relates to protection against microbes, not toxins like in botulism.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ethambutol. Ethambutol is known to cause optic neuritis, affecting the visual nerve. It is a well-documented side effect of this drug. Isoniazid (Choice A) is associated with peripheral neuropathy, not optic neuritis. Kanamycin (Choice C) is known for its side effects on the inner ear, causing hearing loss. Rifampicin (Choice D) is not typically associated with optic neuritis but can cause other adverse effects like hepatitis. By process of elimination and knowledge of drug side effects, Ethambutol is the most likely culprit.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because viruses have the ability to infect all organisms, including plants, bacteria, animals, and even fungi. Viruses are non-living entities that require a host cell to replicate and spread. They can infect a wide range of organisms by attaching to specific receptors on the host cell's surface. Therefore, the correct answer is D as viruses have the capability to infect all living organisms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because viruses can infect not only plants, bacteria, and animals but also other organisms, making choice D the most comprehensive and accurate option.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Thermophiles. Thermophiles are bacteria that thrive in high temperatures typically above 45°C. They have specialized enzymes and cellular structures that allow them to survive and even thrive in extreme heat. Psychrophiles (A) are adapted to cold temperatures, mesophiles (B) thrive at moderate temperatures, and halophiles (D) prefer high salt concentrations, making them unsuitable for extreme heat survival. Therefore, Thermophiles are the only bacteria among the choices that are known for their ability to survive in extreme heat.