ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Cardiovascular Disorders Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 1-day-old is noted to be cyanotic. Physical examination reveals a grade 2-3/6 systolic murmur and a single loud second heart sound. The chest radiograph reveals a normal-sized heart and decreased pulmonary vascular markings. The electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals left ventricular dominance. The next step in the management of this neonate is to administer
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is C) prostaglandin E1. The infant described is presenting with signs suggestive of a ductal-dependent congenital heart defect, such as critical pulmonary stenosis or transposition of the great arteries. Prostaglandin E1 is crucial in maintaining the patency of the ductus arteriosus, which allows for essential shunting of blood in these critical conditions. Option A, sodium bicarbonate, is not indicated as the infant's presentation is not suggestive of metabolic acidosis requiring bicarbonate therapy. Option B, morphine, is not appropriate as it does not address the underlying cardiac pathology. Option D, digoxin, is not the initial treatment in neonates with potential ductal-dependent lesions and may be harmful. Educationally, understanding the significance of prostaglandin E1 in maintaining ductal patency is essential in managing neonates with critical congenital heart defects. This case highlights the importance of prompt recognition and initiation of targeted therapy to stabilize infants with potentially life-threatening cardiac conditions. Learning to differentiate between different treatment options based on pathophysiology is crucial in pediatric nursing and pharmacology.
Question 2 of 5
The treatment of the patient is best performed by which methods (Select one that doesn't apply)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing and cardiovascular disorders, the most appropriate treatment method for a patient with a patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is crucial. The correct answer, D) Digoxin until the PDA closes spontaneously, is the best option to select as it reflects the current evidence-based practice guidelines. Digoxin is primarily used to treat cardiac conditions related to heart failure and arrhythmias, not to close a PDA. The closure of a PDA can be effectively managed through conservative approaches like monitoring and waiting for spontaneous closure. Surgical closure (option B) and catheter coil closure (option C) are invasive procedures usually considered if the PDA fails to close on its own and poses significant clinical issues. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind the management of a PDA in pediatric patients is essential for nursing professionals working in pediatric cardiology. By knowing when interventions are necessary and when conservative management suffices, nurses can provide optimal care and support to pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. It is critical to stay updated with the latest guidelines to ensure evidence-based practice and improve patient outcomes in pediatric pharmacology and nursing.
Question 3 of 5
The blood pressure in the right arm is 95/70, and in the lower extremity it is 45/25. The most likely diagnosis is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) coarctation of the aorta. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, typically near the insertion of the ductus arteriosus. This narrowing results in increased blood pressure in the upper extremities (as seen in the right arm) and decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to decreased blood flow beyond the narrowing (as seen in the lower extremity). This blood pressure discrepancy between the upper and lower extremities is known as blood pressure gradient. Option A) patent ductus arteriosus would not cause such a significant difference in blood pressure between the upper and lower extremities. Option B) truncus arteriosus is associated with a single large vessel arising from the heart, and it does not typically present with a discrepancy in blood pressure between the upper and lower extremities. Option C) asplenia is not related to the blood pressure variations described in the scenario. Understanding pediatric cardiovascular disorders is crucial for pediatric nurses as early recognition of such conditions can prevent complications and improve outcomes for pediatric patients. Recognizing the characteristic blood pressure changes associated with coarctation of the aorta can lead to prompt intervention and management to prevent further complications.
Question 4 of 5
Ice applied to the face has been ineffective in the patient. The treatment of choice is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the pharmacological management of cardiovascular disorders is crucial. In this scenario, the correct answer is A) adenosine. Adenosine is the treatment of choice for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) in children. It works by slowing conduction through the atrioventricular (AV) node, terminating the re-entry circuit causing SVT. Verapamil (B) and digoxin (C) are not first-line treatments for SVT in pediatric patients due to potential adverse effects like hypotension and worsening heart block. Lidocaine (D) is primarily used for ventricular arrhythmias and is not indicated for SVT. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of knowing the appropriate pharmacological interventions for pediatric cardiovascular conditions. It underscores the need for precise drug selection to ensure safe and effective care for pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. Understanding the mechanism of action and indications for each medication is essential for pediatric nurses to provide optimal care.
Question 5 of 5
An 8-year-old female presents with chest pain of 1 day's duration. Five days prior to the pain, she had fever, chills, and myalgias. Physical examination reveals an uncomfortable, anxious, afebrile patient with tachycardia, no murmur, and distant heart sounds. The chest x-ray is shown in Figure 19-2. There is a paradoxical pulse of 22 mm Hg. The most likely diagnosis is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this case, the correct answer is D) pericarditis. Pericarditis is the inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like covering around the heart. The clinical presentation of chest pain, fever, and distant heart sounds along with the presence of a paradoxical pulse is indicative of pericarditis. The chest x-ray may show an enlarged cardiac silhouette or pericardial effusion, supporting the diagnosis. Option A) myocarditis involves inflammation of the heart muscle and would typically present with more severe symptoms such as heart failure, arrhythmias, or cardiogenic shock. Option B) cardiomyopathy refers to diseases of the heart muscle itself, which may present with symptoms like fatigue, shortness of breath, and edema. The absence of murmur and the clinical course described make this less likely. Option C) Kawasaki disease is an acute febrile illness in children that can lead to coronary artery abnormalities. While it can present with fever and other systemic symptoms, the absence of typical features like conjunctivitis, rash, and lymphadenopathy makes it less likely in this case. Educationally, understanding the distinguishing features of different cardiovascular disorders in pediatric patients is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management. Recognizing the key clinical findings, such as the paradoxical pulse in pericarditis, helps in differentiating between similar presentations and providing timely and effective care for young patients with cardiovascular issues.