ATI RN
Pediatrics Genetics Questions
Question 1 of 5
69 XYY occurs due to:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Dispermy (A) causes 69, XYY. Rationale: Two Y-bearing sperms (23, Y each) + egg (23, X) yield triploid 69, XYY; nondisjunction or endomitosis don’t fit.
Question 2 of 5
The prolactin level of the young woman described in Question 1 is 1000 times higher than normal. The next test in her evaluation should be
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Elevated prolactin (1000x normal) suggests a pituitary prolactinoma. Cranial MRI (A) is the next step to visualize the pituitary gland. Rationale: MRI detects adenomas; abdominal CT (B) or pelvic ultrasound (C) assess unrelated areas; uterine biopsy (D) and mammography (E) don’t address pituitary pathology.
Question 3 of 5
Successful treatment of nonspecific vulvovaginitis includes all of the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Treatment includes loose clothing (B), sitz baths (C), and mild soap (D). Oral tetracycline is not indicated. Rationale: Topical estrogen (A) may help in severe cases; tetracycline is for bacterial infections, not nonspecific vulvovaginitis.
Question 4 of 5
The most common ovarian neoplasm in adolescents is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Teratomas (B), often benign (dermoid cysts), are the most common ovarian neoplasms in adolescents. Rationale: Malignant cancers (A) and rare tumors (C, D) are less frequent; teratomas arise from germ cells, prevalent in young females.
Question 5 of 5
Parents to a 2-year-old boy with achondroplasia, father is 45 years and mother is 35 years old and no one of them manifest the disease. Of the following, the MOST likely explanation is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Achondroplasia (FGFR3 mutation) is AD, but unaffected parents suggest a new mutation (C). Rationale: 80% of cases are de novo; incomplete penetrance (A) or expressivity (B) implies a parental carrier, unlikely here; maternal age (D) isn’t key.