ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
60 year-old Mrs. Torres arrived just in time for her doctor’s appointment. She complains of pain and stiffness in her back. She is suspected of having osteoporosis. Nurse Ariane will inform Mrs. Torres that the primary complication of osteoporosis is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: fractures. Osteoporosis weakens bones, making them more prone to fractures. Fractures are the primary complication of osteoporosis due to decreased bone density. Increased trabeculae (A) is incorrect as osteoporosis leads to decreased bone density, not increased. Poor posture (B) may be a result of osteoporosis but is not its primary complication. Chronic pain (C) can occur with osteoporosis but is not as directly linked as fractures.
Question 2 of 5
. Which of the following instructions should be included in the teaching plan for a client requiring insulin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Draw up clear insulin first when mixing two types of insulin in one syringe. This is important because mixing insulin requires drawing up the clear (short-acting) insulin first to prevent contamination. This ensures accurate dosing and prevents clouding of the insulin. Drawing up cloudy insulin first can lead to inaccurate dosing and potential mixing errors. Administering insulin after the first meal (choice A) is not the focus of this question. Administering insulin at a 45-degree angle into the deltoid muscle (choice B) is not recommended for insulin injections. Vigorously shaking the vial of insulin before withdrawal (choice C) can cause bubbles and affect the accuracy of the dose.
Question 3 of 5
The physician prescribes glipizide (Glucotrol), an oral antidiabetic agent, for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who has been having trouble controlling the blood glucose level through diet and exercise. Which medication instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: “Be sure to take glipizide 30 minutes before meals.” This instruction is correct because glipizide is an oral antidiabetic agent that works best when taken before meals to help control blood glucose levels. Taking it before meals allows the medication to coincide with the body's natural insulin response to food intake, thereby improving its effectiveness. Choice B is incorrect because glipizide does not typically cause low serum sodium levels, so there is no need for monthly sodium level checks. Choice C is incorrect because it is essential for the client to continue monitoring their blood glucose levels even after starting glipizide to ensure the medication is working effectively. Choice D is incorrect because taking glipizide after a meal will not optimize its effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse should expect a client with hypothyroidism to report which health concerns?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to symptoms like puffiness of the face and hands due to fluid retention. This occurs as a result of decreased metabolism. Options A and B are symptoms of hyperthyroidism, where the thyroid gland is overactive. Option D is a symptom of goiter, which is thyroid gland swelling, not specific to hypothyroidism. Therefore, the correct answer is C based on the characteristic symptoms of hypothyroidism.
Question 5 of 5
The most likely cause of her chief complaint this morning is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because polyuria is a common complication of hypophysectomy, the surgical removal of the pituitary gland. The pituitary gland plays a crucial role in regulating water balance in the body, and its removal can lead to excessive urine production. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in stress does not typically cause polyuria, diabetes mellitus is not an immediate complication of surgery, and polyuria is not an expected result of pituitary gland removal.