ATI RN
Safety Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
25-hydroxyvitamin D3 (calcifediol) is less effective than 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol) in stimulating intestinal calcium transport, so that hypercalcemia is less of a problem with calcifediol. This consideration is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) TRUE. The rationale behind this is that 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 (calcifediol) is less potent in stimulating intestinal calcium transport compared to the active form, 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 (calcitriol). This means that calcifediol is less likely to lead to excessive absorption of calcium from the intestines, reducing the risk of hypercalcemia. Option B) FALSE is incorrect because the statement in the question is accurate based on the pharmacological properties of these two forms of vitamin D. Option C) All of the above and D) None of the above are also incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the specific information provided about the differences in effectiveness between calcifediol and calcitriol in stimulating intestinal calcium transport. From an educational perspective, understanding the differences in the pharmacological actions of different forms of vitamin D is crucial in clinical practice. Healthcare professionals need to be aware of how these variations can impact patient outcomes, especially in managing conditions related to calcium metabolism and bone health. This knowledge is essential for making informed decisions regarding supplementation and treatment strategies to prevent complications such as hypercalcemia.
Question 2 of 5
Correct statements about alendronate include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is B) 1st generation bisphosphonate. Alendronate is a 3rd generation bisphosphonate, not a 1st generation. Option A is incorrect because alendronate can indeed cause irritation to the esophagus if not taken properly, but this statement is not the exception. Option C is incorrect because alendronate does reduce osteoclast activity without significantly affecting osteoblasts, but it is primarily used in the treatment of osteoporosis, not Paget's disease. Option D is incorrect because alendronate is not more potent than EHDP and does not have a wider therapeutic window. From an educational standpoint, understanding the generation of bisphosphonates is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions about their use in various conditions. This question assesses the knowledge of specific drug characteristics, emphasizing the importance of accurate drug information to ensure safe and effective patient care.
Question 3 of 5
Interactions with other drugs of calcium is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of safety pharmacology across the lifespan, understanding drug interactions is crucial for safe and effective patient care. In this specific question, the correct answer is B) Loop diuretics: increase renal excretion. Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are known to increase the excretion of calcium through the kidneys. This can lead to hypocalcemia, a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. Understanding this interaction is important when administering loop diuretics to patients, especially those at risk for calcium imbalances such as the elderly or individuals with certain medical conditions. Option A) Ethanol: decreases absorption is incorrect because ethanol does not have a direct impact on calcium absorption. Option C) Glucocorticoids: stimulate renal excretion is also incorrect as glucocorticoids are not known to directly affect calcium excretion in the kidneys. By knowing the specific drug interactions related to calcium, healthcare providers can tailor their treatment plans to minimize adverse effects and ensure patient safety. This knowledge is essential in promoting optimal pharmacological outcomes and preventing potential complications in patients across the lifespan.
Question 4 of 5
Route of administration of plicamycin is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of safety pharmacology, understanding the route of administration of drugs is crucial for ensuring their efficacy and safety across different age groups. In the case of plicamycin, the correct route of administration is intravenous (A) because this drug is a cytotoxic antibiotic used in the treatment of testicular cancer and other neoplastic conditions. Intravenous administration ensures rapid and direct delivery of the medication into the bloodstream, allowing for immediate systemic effects. The incorrect options are: - Subcutaneous (B): This route may not provide the same rapid onset of action needed for plicamycin's therapeutic effects. - Intranasal (C): Intranasal administration is not suitable for a cytotoxic medication like plicamycin due to potential local irritation and limited systemic absorption. - Oral (D): Plicamycin is not administered orally because it would undergo extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver, reducing its bioavailability and efficacy. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind the selection of the correct route of administration for specific drugs is essential for healthcare professionals to ensure optimal patient outcomes. It highlights the importance of drug administration principles, pharmacokinetics, and drug-specific considerations in clinical practice. This knowledge helps in preventing medication errors, optimizing drug therapy, and ensuring patient safety across the lifespan.
Question 5 of 5
Sustained use of this drug results in increased plasma urate concentrations:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the kidneys to increase urine production and decrease fluid retention. One of the side effects of furosemide is hyperuricemia, which is an increase in plasma urate concentrations. This occurs because furosemide can interfere with uric acid excretion in the kidneys, leading to elevated levels in the blood. Option B) Acetazolamide (Diamox) is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that is commonly used as a diuretic. However, acetazolamide does not typically result in increased plasma urate concentrations. It works by promoting the excretion of bicarbonate in the urine, leading to metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the correct answer is A because furosemide is known to cause hyperuricemia as a side effect of its mechanism of action. Understanding the specific side effects of different drug classes is crucial in safety pharmacology across the lifespan, as it helps healthcare providers anticipate and manage potential adverse effects in patients.