ATI RN
Medical Microbiology Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
2 weeks since the blood transfusion a recepient has developed fever. What protozoal disease can it be?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malaria. Fever developing 2 weeks post-blood transfusion is characteristic of malaria due to the incubation period of the parasite. Trypanosomiasis presents earlier, amebiasis usually causes GI symptoms, and toxoplasmosis typically manifests with flu-like symptoms. Malaria is the most likely cause based on the timing and clinical presentation.
Question 2 of 5
CDC stands for:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Centers for Disease Control and Prevention. The CDC is a U.S. government agency responsible for protecting public health and safety. The correct answer is the only choice that accurately reflects the agency's purpose. Choice B (Children's Disease Center) is incorrect because the CDC's scope is not limited to children's health. Choice C (Central Disaster Control Center) is incorrect as the CDC primarily focuses on disease prevention. Choice D (Central Drug Evaluation and Control Center) is incorrect as the CDC's main focus is not on drug evaluation. Thus, the correct answer is A as it aligns with the CDC's mission and responsibilities.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following has a contact route of transmission
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: HIV. HIV is transmitted through direct contact with certain body fluids such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. This direct contact route of transmission makes it different from the other choices. Salmonellosis is typically transmitted through contaminated food or water (not direct contact). Tularemia is usually transmitted through insect bites or contact with infected animals. Rubella is primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets. Therefore, HIV is the only option with a contact route of transmission.
Question 4 of 5
For destruction of spore forms of microorganisms is used:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: autoclaving. Autoclaving is a process that uses high pressure and steam to achieve temperatures above the boiling point of water, typically around 121-134°C. This high heat and pressure are effective in destroying spore forms of microorganisms, which are highly resistant structures that can withstand boiling temperatures. Autoclaving ensures the complete destruction of spores, making it an effective method for sterilization. Rationale: A: Pasteurization uses lower heat compared to autoclaving and is not sufficient to destroy spore forms. C: Freezing does not effectively destroy spore forms, as most microorganisms can survive freezing temperatures. D: Boiling, while effective for many microorganisms, may not be sufficient to destroy spore forms due to their high resistance, unlike autoclaving.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is true regarding bacterial plasmids?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B - Plasmids are circular DNA molecules Rationale: 1. Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA molecules found in bacteria. 2. Plasmids are typically circular in structure, not linear. 3. Circular plasmids are easily replicated and transferred between bacteria. 4. Plasmids can carry genes for antibiotic resistance, making option C incorrect. 5. Not all bacteria have plasmids, making option D incorrect. 6. While plasmids can provide benefits, they are not essential for bacterial survival, making option A incorrect.
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