2-bromo-2-chloro-1,1,1 trifluroethane is

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CNS Pharmacology Drug Quiz Questions

Question 1 of 5

2-bromo-2-chloro-1,1,1 trifluroethane is

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Halothane. Halothane is a volatile anesthetic agent commonly used in anesthesia practice. 2-bromo-2-chloro-1,1,1 trifluoroethane is the chemical structure of halothane. It is known for its potent anesthetic properties and has been widely used in the past, although its use has decreased due to potential hepatotoxicity. Enflurane (option B), isoflurane (option C), and desflurane (option D) are also volatile anesthetic agents but have different chemical structures than halothane. Enflurane is 2-chloro-1,1,2-trifluoroethane, isoflurane is 1-chloro-2,2,2-trifluoroethyl difluoromethyl ether, and desflurane is 2,2,2-trifluoro-1-(trifluoromethyl)ethyl ether. Understanding the chemical structures of anesthetic agents is crucial in pharmacology as it helps in predicting their pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic properties, as well as their potential side effects. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals, particularly anesthesiologists and nurse anesthetists, to ensure safe and effective administration of anesthesia to patients.

Question 2 of 5

For majority of patients of parkinsonism, the standard drug therapy is

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the treatment of Parkinsonism, the standard drug therapy for the majority of patients is Levodopa combined with Carbidopa (Option B). Levodopa is the most effective medication for managing the symptoms of Parkinson's disease as it is a precursor to dopamine, a neurotransmitter that is deficient in Parkinson's patients. Carbidopa is often combined with Levodopa to prevent the peripheral breakdown of Levodopa before it reaches the brain, thus increasing the amount of Levodopa available to cross the blood-brain barrier and be converted to dopamine in the brain. Option A (Levodopa alone) is less effective because Levodopa alone is rapidly metabolized in the periphery, leading to limited amounts of Levodopa reaching the brain to exert its therapeutic effects. Option C (Levodopa + Trihexyphenidyl) is incorrect as Trihexyphenidyl is an anticholinergic medication used for managing tremors and muscle stiffness in Parkinson's disease but is not a standard first-line therapy. Option D (Bromocriptine) is a dopamine agonist used in Parkinson's disease, but it is not typically considered the standard initial therapy for most patients. Understanding the rationale behind choosing the correct medication for Parkinsonism is crucial for healthcare professionals involved in the management of neurological conditions. By selecting the appropriate drug therapy based on the underlying pathophysiology and the patient's symptoms, healthcare providers can optimize treatment outcomes and improve the quality of life for patients with Parkinson's disease.

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following is a selective MAO-B inhibitor?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Selegiline, a selective MAO-B inhibitor. Selegiline specifically targets and inhibits the MAO-B enzyme, which predominantly metabolizes dopamine in the brain. By selectively inhibiting MAO-B, selegiline increases dopamine levels in the brain, making it a valuable treatment for Parkinson's disease. Option B) Chlorgiline is not a valid choice as it is not a known drug in CNS pharmacology. Option C) Moclobemide is a reversible inhibitor of MAO-A, not MAO-B. It is used to treat depression and anxiety disorders. Option D) Tranylcypromine is a non-selective MAO inhibitor, inhibiting both MAO-A and MAO-B, and is commonly used in the treatment of depression. Understanding the differences between MAO inhibitors is crucial in pharmacology, especially in managing CNS disorders. Selective MAO-B inhibitors like selegiline offer a more targeted approach with potentially fewer side effects compared to non-selective MAO inhibitors. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when selecting appropriate pharmacological interventions for patients with CNS conditions.

Question 4 of 5

The constellation of side effects consisting of thirst, polyuria, looseness of stools, and fine tremors is characteristically associated with the following psychotropic drug

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Lithium carbonate. The constellation of side effects described - thirst, polyuria, looseness of stools, and fine tremors - is indicative of lithium toxicity. Lithium is commonly used to treat bipolar disorder. It has a narrow therapeutic index, meaning the difference between a therapeutic dose and a toxic dose is small. Symptoms of lithium toxicity can range from mild (such as fine tremors) to severe (like seizures and coma). Thirst and polyuria result from its effects on the kidneys, leading to increased urine output and dehydration. Looseness of stools can be due to gastrointestinal disturbances caused by lithium. Amitriptyline (A) is a tricyclic antidepressant known for side effects like anticholinergic effects, sedation, and cardiac toxicity. Buspirone (B) is an anxiolytic with side effects such as dizziness and nausea. Lorazepam (C) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety and can cause sedation and respiratory depression. For educational context, understanding the side effects of psychotropic medications is crucial for healthcare professionals to monitor patients effectively, prevent adverse reactions, and ensure optimal treatment outcomes. Recognizing the specific side effect profile of each drug aids in making informed decisions regarding medication management. This knowledge is essential for pharmacists, nurses, physicians, and other healthcare providers involved in the care of patients taking psychotropic medications.

Question 5 of 5

Following general anesthetic is oil at room temperature

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Propofol because it is an oil-based drug that is liquid at room temperature. Propofol is commonly used for induction and maintenance of anesthesia due to its rapid onset and short duration of action. Option B) Ketamine is a water-soluble drug that is not an oil at room temperature. Ketamine is a dissociative anesthetic that acts by blocking NMDA receptors. Option C) Droperidol is a butyrophenone antipsychotic drug and is not an oil at room temperature. Droperidol is used for the treatment of nausea and vomiting. Option D) Diazepam is a benzodiazepine drug that is not an oil at room temperature. Diazepam is commonly used for its anxiolytic and sedative properties. In an educational context, understanding the physical properties of drugs is essential in pharmacology to comprehend their formulation, administration, and pharmacokinetics. Knowing that Propofol is an oil-based drug helps healthcare professionals in handling and administering it appropriately during anesthesia procedures. It also highlights the importance of precise drug knowledge in clinical practice to ensure safe and effective patient care.

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