ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions
Question 1 of 9
1.A nurse prepares to insert a peripheral venous catheter in an older adult client. Which action should the nurse take to protect the clients skin during this procedure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Place a washcloth between the skin and tourniquet. This step helps protect the client's skin by providing a barrier between the tourniquet and the skin, reducing the risk of skin irritation or damage. Lowering the extremity below the heart (A) can increase venous pressure and make it harder to insert the catheter. Warm compresses (B) can dilate blood vessels and increase the risk of bruising. Tapping the skin lightly (C) can irritate the skin and is unnecessary for skin protection.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse teaches a client who is being discharged home with a peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC). Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Avoid carrying your grandchild with the arm that has the central catheter." This is important because carrying a child can put strain on the arm where the catheter is inserted, increasing the risk of dislodging or damaging the catheter. It is crucial to protect the integrity of the catheter site to prevent complications such as infection or bleeding. Choice B is incorrect because placing the arm with the central catheter in a sling during the day is unnecessary and could restrict the client's mobility and lead to discomfort. Choice C is incorrect because flushing the PICC line with normal saline should be done by a healthcare professional and not the client themselves. Choice D is incorrect because using the arm with the central catheter for most activities of daily living can increase the risk of accidental dislodgment or damage to the catheter. It is important to be cautious and limit certain activities to protect the catheter and maintain its function.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with a longstanding diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder presents to the emergency room. The triage nurse notes upon assessment that the patient is hyperventilating. The triage nurse is aware that hyperventilation is the most common cause
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. Hyperventilation leads to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide, causing a decrease in PaCO2 levels, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. This is the most common cause of hyperventilation. Respiratory acidosis (choice A) occurs when there is retention of carbon dioxide. Increased PaCO2 (choice C) is a consequence of respiratory acidosis, not alkalosis. CNS disturbances (choice D) can lead to abnormal breathing patterns but are not the most common cause of hyperventilation.
Question 4 of 9
The physician has ordered a peripheral IV to be inserted before the patient goes for computed tomography. What should the nurse do when selecting a site on the hand or arm for insertion of an IV catheter?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because considering potential effects on the patient's mobility is crucial when selecting a site for IV insertion. Mobility can be affected if the IV is placed in a joint area or on the dominant hand. This could limit the patient's ability to move freely during and after the procedure. Therefore, it is important to choose a site that will not hinder the patient's movement. A: Choosing a hairless site is not the most important factor when selecting a site for IV insertion. C: Having the patient hold his arm over his head before insertion is not necessary and may cause discomfort for the patient. D: Leaving the tourniquet on for at least 3 minutes is not recommended as it can lead to complications such as venous stasis.
Question 5 of 9
. One day after a patient is admitted to the medical unit, you note that the patient is oliguric. You notify the acutecare nurse practitioner who orders a fluid challenge of 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. This intervention will achieve which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Help distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function. Rationale: 1. Oliguria is a decrease in urine output. 2. Fluid challenge with normal saline can help determine the cause of oliguria by assessing the response of the kidneys. 3. If the oliguria improves after the fluid challenge, it suggests reduced renal blood flow as the cause. 4. If oliguria persists, it indicates decreased renal function. Summary: A. Fluid challenge does not directly help in distinguishing between hyponatremia and hypernatremia. B. Evaluating pituitary gland function requires specific tests, not just a fluid challenge. D. Treating hypertension-induced oliguria may involve different interventions, not just a fluid challenge.
Question 6 of 9
After administering 40 mEq of potassium chloride, a nurse evaluates the clients response. Which manifestations indicate that treatment is improving the clients hypokalemia? (Select all tha do not t apply.)
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: U waves present on the electrocardiogram (ECG). U waves are indicative of hypokalemia, and their presence indicates that the potassium chloride treatment is improving the condition. Explanation: 1. A: Strong productive cough - This manifestation is not related to potassium levels and does not indicate improvement in hypokalemia. 2. B: Active bowel sounds - While hypokalemia can cause gastrointestinal issues, active bowel sounds alone do not specifically indicate improvement in potassium levels. 3. C: U waves present on ECG - U waves are a classic ECG finding in hypokalemia. The presence of U waves indicates a positive response to potassium chloride treatment. 4. D: No response provided - Not applicable. In summary, the presence of U waves on the ECG is a key indicator of improvement in hypokalemia, while the other manifestations do not directly relate to potassium levels.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes needs immediate intervention. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client's high serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L can lead to serious cardiovascular complications like arrhythmias. The immediate priority is to lower potassium levels rapidly to prevent cardiac arrest. Administering dextrose 20% and regular insulin IV push helps shift potassium from extracellular to intracellular space, lowering serum levels quickly. Option A (Kayexalate) is not as rapid as insulin therapy. Option B (low-potassium diet) is not immediate. Option D (hemodialysis) is effective but not as quick as insulin therapy for urgent potassium reduction.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse assesses a client who has a radial artery catheter. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Presence of an ulnar pulse. This is the most important assessment to complete first because the presence of an ulnar pulse indicates adequate circulation in the hand, ensuring that the radial artery catheter is not compromising blood flow. If the ulnar pulse is absent, it may signify impaired circulation and potential complications such as ischemia. Choice A is incorrect because the amount of pressure in the fluid container is not directly related to the assessment of the radial artery catheter. Choice B is incorrect because the date of catheter tubing change is important for infection control but not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as the percent of heparin in the infusion container is important for anticoagulation therapy but does not take precedence over assessing circulation in the hand.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse evaluates the following arterial blood gas values in a client: pH 7.48, PaO2 98 mm Hg, PaCO2 28 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which client condition should the nurse correlate with these results?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Anxiety-induced hyperventilation. The arterial blood gas values show a pH of 7.48 (alkalosis) with low PaCO2 (respiratory alkalosis), which is consistent with hyperventilation due to anxiety. HCO3 is within normal range, ruling out metabolic causes. A: Diarrhea and vomiting would lead to metabolic acidosis with low pH and decreased HCO3. C: COPD would typically present with respiratory acidosis (high PaCO2) and normal to high HCO3. D: Diabetic ketoacidosis and emphysema would show metabolic acidosis with low pH and low HCO3.