You are making initial shift assessments on your patients. While assessing one patients peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?

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ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions

Question 1 of 9

You are making initial shift assessments on your patients. While assessing one patients peripheral IV site, you note edema around the insertion site. How should you document this complication related to IV therapy?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - Infiltration Rationale: 1. Infiltration occurs when IV fluid leaks into surrounding tissues, causing edema. 2. Documenting infiltration is important for appropriate management. 3. Air emboli, phlebitis, and fluid overload are unrelated to edema around IV site. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A. Air emboli: This is a serious condition caused by air entering the bloodstream, not related to edema. B. Phlebitis: Inflammation of the vein, usually presenting with redness and pain, not edema. D. Fluid overload: Excess fluid volume in the body, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath, not edema.

Question 2 of 9

You are called to your patients room by a family member who voices concern about the patients status. On assessment, you find the patient tachypnic, lethargic, weak, and exhibiting a diminished cognitive ability. You also find 3+ pitting edema. What electrolyte imbalance is the most plausible cause of this patients signs and symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperchloremia. In this scenario, the patient's symptoms point towards fluid overload, which can lead to hyperchloremia due to excessive chloride intake. 3+ pitting edema suggests fluid retention, a common symptom of hyperchloremia. Additionally, tachypnea can occur as a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis seen in hyperchloremia. Lethargy, weakness, and diminished cognitive ability can be attributed to electrolyte imbalances impacting nerve and muscle function. Choice A: Hypocalcemia is less likely as it typically presents with neuromuscular irritability, not lethargy. Choice B: Hyponatremia usually presents with neurological symptoms like confusion and seizures, not the symptoms described. Choice D: Hypophosphatemia typically presents with muscle weakness, not the full constellation of symptoms described.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client who is having a subclavian central venous catheter inserted. The client begins to report chest pain and difficulty breathing. After administering oxygen, which action should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion. Chest pain and difficulty breathing after subclavian central venous catheter insertion could indicate a pneumothorax, a potential complication. Chest tube insertion is indicated to help re-expand the lung and relieve the pressure in the thoracic cavity. This intervention takes priority over the other options because it addresses the potential life-threatening complication of a pneumothorax. Administering nitroglycerin (choice A) is not indicated for chest pain in this scenario. Placing a sterile dressing over the IV site (choice C) is not appropriate for managing chest pain and difficulty breathing. Re-positioning the client into the Trendelenburg position (choice D) is not effective in addressing a pneumothorax and may worsen the client's condition.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse evaluates a clients arterial blood gas values (ABGs): pH 7.30, PaO2 86 mm Hg, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the airway. The nurse should prioritize airway assessment as the client's ABGs indicate respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2). This suggests potential airway obstruction or inadequate ventilation. Ensuring a patent airway is crucial for adequate oxygenation. Administering bronchodilators (B) or mucolytics (D) may help with airway clearance but should come after ensuring a clear airway. Providing oxygen (C) is important, but addressing the underlying respiratory acidosis by first assessing the airway is the priority in this situation to prevent further deterioration.

Question 5 of 9

A client with a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes needs immediate intervention. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client's high serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L can lead to serious cardiovascular complications like arrhythmias. The immediate priority is to lower potassium levels rapidly to prevent cardiac arrest. Administering dextrose 20% and regular insulin IV push helps shift potassium from extracellular to intracellular space, lowering serum levels quickly. Option A (Kayexalate) is not as rapid as insulin therapy. Option B (low-potassium diet) is not immediate. Option D (hemodialysis) is effective but not as quick as insulin therapy for urgent potassium reduction.

Question 6 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural infusion for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention from the nurse?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report of headache and stiff neck. This finding indicates a potential complication of epidural anesthesia called a post-dural puncture headache, which can lead to serious consequences like meningitis or subdural hematoma. The nurse should act immediately by notifying the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Redness at the catheter insertion site (A) may indicate local inflammation but doesn't require immediate intervention. Temperature elevation (C) could be a sign of infection but isn't as urgent as a headache and stiff neck. Pain rating of 8 (D) is important but doesn't indicate an immediate threat to the client's health like a post-dural puncture headache.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse assesses a client who is admitted with an acid-base imbalance. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 7.32, PaO2 85 mm Hg, PaCO2 34 mm Hg, and HCO3 16 mEq/L. What action should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess clients rate, rhythm, and depth of respiration. The arterial blood gas values indicate a respiratory acidosis due to low pH and low PaCO2. The nurse should assess the respiratory status to determine if the client is hypoventilating, which is causing the retention of CO2 and subsequent acidosis. Assessing the rate, rhythm, and depth of respiration will help determine if the client requires immediate intervention such as oxygen therapy, mechanical ventilation, or respiratory treatment. Choice B is incorrect because measuring pulse and blood pressure does not directly address the underlying cause of the acid-base imbalance. Choice C is incorrect as the nurse should take immediate action to address the imbalance rather than passively monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as immediate intervention is needed to address the respiratory acidosis.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse educator is reviewing peripheral IV insertion with a group of novice nurses. How should these nurses be encouraged to deal with excess hair at the intended site?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Clip the hair in the area. Clipping the hair is the most appropriate option as it reduces the risk of infection during IV insertion by minimizing the presence of bacteria that may be trapped in the hair. Shaving (B) can cause micro-abrasions leading to increased infection risk. Leaving the hair intact (A) can also trap bacteria. Using a depilatory (D) can cause skin irritation and should be avoided. In summary, clipping the hair is the best option to maintain a clean and safe environment for IV insertion.

Question 9 of 9

After teaching a client to increase dietary potassium intake, a nurse assesses the client's understanding. Which dietary meal selection indicates the client correctly understands the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes foods high in potassium. Raisins, whole wheat toast, and milk are good sources of potassium. Sausage might contain some potassium as well. A: This option lacks potassium-rich foods. B: While strawberries have some potassium, the overall meal lacks a sufficient amount. D: While oatmeal and peaches have potassium, coffee can actually inhibit potassium absorption.

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