ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions
Question 1 of 9
. You are caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Your patients plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every 4 hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fluid volume status. Assessment of specific gravity helps to determine the concentration of solutes in the urine, indicating the degree of hydration or dehydration. In SIADH, there is water retention leading to diluted urine, resulting in low specific gravity. Monitoring specific gravity every 4 hours is crucial in assessing the patient's fluid volume status and response to treatment. A: Nutritional status is not directly assessed by specific gravity. B: Potassium balance is not directly assessed by specific gravity. C: Calcium balance is not directly assessed by specific gravity.
Question 2 of 9
. One day after a patient is admitted to the medical unit, you note that the patient is oliguric. You notify the acutecare nurse practitioner who orders a fluid challenge of 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. This intervention will achieve which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Help distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function. Rationale: 1. Oliguria is a decrease in urine output. 2. Fluid challenge with normal saline can help determine the cause of oliguria by assessing the response of the kidneys. 3. If the oliguria improves after the fluid challenge, it suggests reduced renal blood flow as the cause. 4. If oliguria persists, it indicates decreased renal function. Summary: A. Fluid challenge does not directly help in distinguishing between hyponatremia and hypernatremia. B. Evaluating pituitary gland function requires specific tests, not just a fluid challenge. D. Treating hypertension-induced oliguria may involve different interventions, not just a fluid challenge.
Question 3 of 9
While assessing clients on a medical-surgical unit, which client is at risk for hypokalemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Client with pancreatitis who has continuous nasogastric suctioning. Pancreatitis can lead to gastrointestinal losses of potassium, and continuous nasogastric suctioning can further exacerbate this potassium loss, putting the client at risk for hypokalemia. The other choices are incorrect because: B: ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia, not hypokalemia. C: Blood transfusions can lead to hyperkalemia due to the potassium content in blood products. D: Uncontrolled diabetes and a serum pH level of 7.33 are not directly associated with hypokalemia.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse teaches a client who is prescribed a central vascular access device. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Correct Answer: C Rationale: 1. Choice C is correct because it emphasizes the importance of cleaning connections before accessing the device to prevent infection. 2. Sterile technique during insertion cannot guarantee no risk of infection (Choice B). 3. Wearing a sling is unnecessary for a central vascular access device (Choice A). 4. The statement about not being able to take a bath is not accurate and is not a common restriction (Choice D).
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has acute pancreatitis and is at risk for an acid-base imbalance. For which manifestation of this acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Kussmaul respirations. In acute pancreatitis, metabolic acidosis can occur due to the release of pancreatic enzymes. Kussmaul respirations are deep, rapid breaths that help to blow off excess carbon dioxide in response to acidosis, aiming to correct the pH imbalance. Agitation (A) is a nonspecific symptom and not specific to acid-base imbalances. Seizures (C) are more commonly associated with electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatremia or hypocalcemia. Positive Chvostek's sign (D) is a clinical sign of hypocalcemia, not directly related to acid-base imbalances in acute pancreatitis.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed a medication that inhibits aldosterone secretion and release. For which potential complications should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why option A is correct: 1. Inhibition of aldosterone secretion leads to decreased sodium reabsorption and increased water excretion. 2. Decreased aldosterone can result in decreased blood volume and BP, leading to decreased urine output. 3. Monitoring urine output is crucial to assess renal function and fluid balance. 4. A urine output of 25 mL/hr is considered inadequate and can indicate renal impairment or dehydration. Summary: Option A is correct as it directly relates to the mechanism of action of inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the expected complications of aldosterone inhibition.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse assesses a client who is prescribed furosemide (Lasix) for hypertension. For which acid-base imbalance should the nurse assess to prevent complications of this therapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Metabolic alkalosis. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to potassium depletion and metabolic alkalosis due to excessive loss of chloride and hydrogen ions. The nurse should assess for signs of metabolic alkalosis such as confusion, muscle weakness, and dysrhythmias to prevent complications. Respiratory acidosis and alkalosis are not directly related to furosemide therapy. Metabolic acidosis is less likely due to furosemide's mechanism of action.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is assessing the patient for the presence of a Chvosteks sign. What electrolyte imbalance would a positive Chvosteks sign indicate?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Chvostek's sign is a facial muscle spasm induced by tapping the facial nerve in hypocalcemia. Step 2: Hypocalcemia causes increased neuromuscular excitability, leading to Chvostek's sign. Step 3: Hyperkalemia (choice D) causes muscle weakness, not muscle spasm. Step 4: Hyponatremia (choice B) affects osmolarity, not neuromuscular excitability. Step 5: Hypermagnesemia (choice A) causes muscle weakness, not muscle spasm.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse assesses a client who has a radial artery catheter. Which assessment should the nurse complete first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Presence of an ulnar pulse. This is the most important assessment to complete first because the presence of an ulnar pulse indicates adequate circulation in the hand, ensuring that the radial artery catheter is not compromising blood flow. If the ulnar pulse is absent, it may signify impaired circulation and potential complications such as ischemia. Choice A is incorrect because the amount of pressure in the fluid container is not directly related to the assessment of the radial artery catheter. Choice B is incorrect because the date of catheter tubing change is important for infection control but not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as the percent of heparin in the infusion container is important for anticoagulation therapy but does not take precedence over assessing circulation in the hand.