ATI RN
ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions
Question 1 of 9
You are an emergency-room nurse caring for a trauma patient. Your patient has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.26, PaCO2 28, HCO3 11 mEq/L. How would you interpret these results?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: To interpret the given ABG results: 1. pH <7.35 indicates acidosis. 2. PaCO2 <35 indicates respiratory alkalosis. 3. HCO3 <22 indicates metabolic acidosis. Therefore, the ABG results show metabolic acidosis (low pH, low HCO3) with compensatory respiratory alkalosis (low PaCO2). This means the body is trying to compensate for the metabolic acidosis by decreasing PaCO2 through hyperventilation. Option D is correct. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not align with the ABG results and the principles of acid-base balance.
Question 2 of 9
. You are caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Your patients plan of care includes assessment of specific gravity every 4 hours. The results of this test will allow the nurse to as
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Fluid volume status. Assessment of specific gravity helps to determine the concentration of solutes in the urine, indicating the degree of hydration or dehydration. In SIADH, there is water retention leading to diluted urine, resulting in low specific gravity. Monitoring specific gravity every 4 hours is crucial in assessing the patient's fluid volume status and response to treatment. A: Nutritional status is not directly assessed by specific gravity. B: Potassium balance is not directly assessed by specific gravity. C: Calcium balance is not directly assessed by specific gravity.
Question 3 of 9
. One day after a patient is admitted to the medical unit, you note that the patient is oliguric. You notify the acutecare nurse practitioner who orders a fluid challenge of 200 mL of normal saline solution over 15 minutes. This intervention will achieve which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Help distinguish reduced renal blood flow from decreased renal function. Rationale: 1. Oliguria is a decrease in urine output. 2. Fluid challenge with normal saline can help determine the cause of oliguria by assessing the response of the kidneys. 3. If the oliguria improves after the fluid challenge, it suggests reduced renal blood flow as the cause. 4. If oliguria persists, it indicates decreased renal function. Summary: A. Fluid challenge does not directly help in distinguishing between hyponatremia and hypernatremia. B. Evaluating pituitary gland function requires specific tests, not just a fluid challenge. D. Treating hypertension-induced oliguria may involve different interventions, not just a fluid challenge.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has a serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL. Which provider order should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encourage oral fluid intake. When a client has hypercalcemia (serum calcium level of 14 mg/dL), the priority is to increase fluid intake to promote renal calcium excretion. This helps prevent complications such as renal calculi. The first step is to dilute the serum calcium by increasing fluid intake, which can help lower the serum calcium level. Connecting the client to a cardiac monitor (B) is not the priority as hypercalcemia affects the kidneys more than the heart. Assessing urinary output (C) is important but encouraging fluid intake is more immediate. Administering oral calcitonin (Calcimar) (D) is not the first action as it is a medication used for long-term management of hypercalcemia, not the immediate priority.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse evaluates a clients arterial blood gas values (ABGs): pH 7.30, PaO2 86 mm Hg, PaCO2 55 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the airway. The nurse should prioritize airway assessment as the client's ABGs indicate respiratory acidosis (low pH, high PaCO2). This suggests potential airway obstruction or inadequate ventilation. Ensuring a patent airway is crucial for adequate oxygenation. Administering bronchodilators (B) or mucolytics (D) may help with airway clearance but should come after ensuring a clear airway. Providing oxygen (C) is important, but addressing the underlying respiratory acidosis by first assessing the airway is the priority in this situation to prevent further deterioration.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an epidural infusion for pain management. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention from the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Report of headache and stiff neck. This finding indicates a potential complication of epidural anesthesia called a post-dural puncture headache, which can lead to serious consequences like meningitis or subdural hematoma. The nurse should act immediately by notifying the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Redness at the catheter insertion site (A) may indicate local inflammation but doesn't require immediate intervention. Temperature elevation (C) could be a sign of infection but isn't as urgent as a headache and stiff neck. Pain rating of 8 (D) is important but doesn't indicate an immediate threat to the client's health like a post-dural puncture headache.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a serum potassium of 7.5 mEq/L and cardiovascular changes needs immediate intervention. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client's high serum potassium level of 7.5 mEq/L can lead to serious cardiovascular complications like arrhythmias. The immediate priority is to lower potassium levels rapidly to prevent cardiac arrest. Administering dextrose 20% and regular insulin IV push helps shift potassium from extracellular to intracellular space, lowering serum levels quickly. Option A (Kayexalate) is not as rapid as insulin therapy. Option B (low-potassium diet) is not immediate. Option D (hemodialysis) is effective but not as quick as insulin therapy for urgent potassium reduction.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who is having a subclavian central venous catheter inserted. The client begins to report chest pain and difficulty breathing. After administering oxygen, which action should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Prepare to assist with chest tube insertion. Chest pain and difficulty breathing after subclavian central venous catheter insertion could indicate a pneumothorax, a potential complication. Chest tube insertion is indicated to help re-expand the lung and relieve the pressure in the thoracic cavity. This intervention takes priority over the other options because it addresses the potential life-threatening complication of a pneumothorax. Administering nitroglycerin (choice A) is not indicated for chest pain in this scenario. Placing a sterile dressing over the IV site (choice C) is not appropriate for managing chest pain and difficulty breathing. Re-positioning the client into the Trendelenburg position (choice D) is not effective in addressing a pneumothorax and may worsen the client's condition.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is assessing clients for fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Which client should the nurse assess first for potential hyponatremia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because intravenous D5W is a hypotonic solution that can lead to dilutional hyponatremia. D5W does not contain sodium, so it can cause a decrease in serum sodium levels. Clients on NPO status receiving D5W are at higher risk due to lack of sodium intake. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly contribute to hyponatremia. Sulfonamide antibiotics, ibuprofen, and digoxin are not typically associated with causing hyponatremia. Therefore, assessing the client on NPO status receiving D5W for potential hyponatremia is the priority.