Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI Fluid Electrolyte and Acid-Base Regulation Questions

Question 1 of 5

. A 73-year-old man comes into the emergency department (ED) by ambulance after slipping on a small carpet in his home. The patient fell on his hip with a resultant fracture. He is alert and oriented; his pupils are equal and reactive to light and accommodation. His heart rate is elevated, he is anxious and thirsty, a Foley catheter is placed, and 40 mL of urine is present. What is the nurses most likely explanation for the low urine output?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The man's elevated heart rate, anxiety, and low urine output indicate a sympathetic reaction. This reaction stimulates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, leading to decreased urine output. The sympathetic response triggers the release of renin, which activates angiotensin II and aldosterone, causing vasoconstriction and water reabsorption in the kidneys, ultimately reducing urine output. Choice A is incorrect because low urine output is not solely due to urinating before arrival. Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication of traumatic brain injury or ADH deficiency. Choice C is incorrect as atrial natriuretic peptide in heart failure typically increases urine output.

Question 2 of 5

You are working on a burns unit, and one of your acutely ill patients is exhibiting signs and symptoms of third spacing. Based on this change in status, you should expect the patient to exhibit signs and symptoms of what imbalance?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: Third spacing occurs when fluid shifts from the intravascular space to interstitial spaces, leading to hypovolemia. This results in decreased circulating blood volume, leading to signs of hypovolemia such as tachycardia, hypotension, and low urine output. Metabolic alkalosis, hypermagnesemia, and hypercalcemia are not directly related to third spacing and are not the expected imbalances in this scenario.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has just experienced a 90-second tonic-clonic seizure. The clients arterial blood gas values are pH 6.88, PaO2 50 mm Hg, PaCO2 60 mm Hg, and HCO3 22 mEq/L. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula. The client is experiencing respiratory acidosis due to inadequate ventilation and oxygenation during the seizure. Providing oxygen will help improve oxygenation and correct the respiratory acidosis. This is the priority to address the immediate physiological need. Choice B is incorrect as applying a paper bag can lead to rebreathing of carbon dioxide, worsening the respiratory acidosis. Choice C is incorrect as sodium bicarbonate is not indicated in this situation and can potentially worsen the acid-base imbalance. Choice D is incorrect as administering glucose and insulin is not relevant to correcting the respiratory acidosis.

Question 4 of 5

You are called to your patients room by a family member who voices concern about the patients status. On assessment, you find the patient tachypnic, lethargic, weak, and exhibiting a diminished cognitive ability. You also find 3+ pitting edema. What electrolyte imbalance is the most plausible cause of this patients signs and symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hyperchloremia. In this scenario, the patient's symptoms point towards fluid overload, which can lead to hyperchloremia due to excessive chloride intake. 3+ pitting edema suggests fluid retention, a common symptom of hyperchloremia. Additionally, tachypnea can occur as a compensatory mechanism for metabolic acidosis seen in hyperchloremia. Lethargy, weakness, and diminished cognitive ability can be attributed to electrolyte imbalances impacting nerve and muscle function. Choice A: Hypocalcemia is less likely as it typically presents with neuromuscular irritability, not lethargy. Choice B: Hyponatremia usually presents with neurological symptoms like confusion and seizures, not the symptoms described. Choice D: Hypophosphatemia typically presents with muscle weakness, not the full constellation of symptoms described.

Question 5 of 5

A home care nurse prepares to administer intravenous medication to a client. The nurse assesses the site and reviews the clients chart prior to administering the medication: Client: Thomas Jackson DOB: 5/3/1936 Gender: Male January 23 (Today): Right uppe

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer the prescribed medication. The nurse has assessed the client's site and reviewed the chart, indicating readiness to administer the medication. It is crucial to follow the healthcare provider's order and administer the prescribed medication as planned. Notifying the provider (A) is unnecessary if all assessments are normal. Discontinuing the PICC line (C) without a valid reason can lead to complications. Switching to oral route (D) should only be considered if there are specific contraindications for the intravenous route. It's important to prioritize safe and effective medication administration based on the client's condition and healthcare provider's orders.

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