ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Online Practice 2023 A Questions
Question 1 of 5
The patient is scheduled to have an EEG to confirm the presence of a sleep disorder. The patient asks the nurse to describe NREM stage 3 sleep. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: NREM stage 3, deep sleep, restores energy-lack causes fatigue and mood dips, per sleep physiology. Stage 1 is lightest, anxiety-sensitive. Dreaming is REM, not here-irritability ties to REM loss. Paradoxical is REM. Deep sleep's role explains EEG focus, answering accurately.
Question 2 of 5
A patient has been receiving intravenous heparin. When laboratory tests are drawn, the nurse has difficulty
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient is displaying signs and symptoms that are suggestive of potential heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a serious adverse effect of heparin therapy. Bloody stools and abdominal pain can indicate gastrointestinal bleeding, which can occur as a complication of heparin therapy. Elevated partial thromboplastin time (PTT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) can also be seen in the setting of HIT.
Question 3 of 5
A patient receiving erythropoietin-stimulating drug has the following laboratory values: hemoglobin, 12.8 mg/dL; platelet count, 148,000/mm2; white blood cell count, 4800/mm2. Which action is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The patient's hemoglobin level of 12.8 mg/dL is within the target range for erythropoietin therapy, which is typically 10-12 g/dL. The nurse should continue monitoring the patient and ensure that the hemoglobin does not exceed 12 g/dL, as higher levels can increase the risk of thromboembolic events. Administering additional erythropoietin is unnecessary and potentially harmful. Stopping the medication abruptly is not indicated unless directed by the healthcare provider. Colony-stimulating factors are used to increase white blood cell counts, not hemoglobin levels.
Question 4 of 5
A 74-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation presents to the emergency department after bowel movement with bright red blood. Her blood pressure is 88/56 mm Hg with a pulse of 118 beats/minute. She is on warfarin for anticoagulation and a stat INR is 7.2. The decision is made to start transfusing blood. What is the most appropriate treatment to reverse the warfarin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Warfarin overdose (INR 7.2, bleeding) needs reversal. Vitamin K -restores clotting factors long-term. Fresh frozen plasma acts faster but isn't sole therapy. Platelets don't reverse. Protamine is for heparin. Whole blood (E) isn't specific. Vitamin K is standard.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following statements regarding colloid administration does the nurse identify as being true?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Colloids, such as albumin and synthetic colloids like hydroxyethyl starch, do not enhance the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. They can help to increase the intravascular volume in cases of hypovolemia by osmotically drawing fluid into the intravascular space. This can help improve tissue perfusion by increasing blood pressure. Colloids do not have a direct effect on oxygen-carrying capacity or coagulation properties. Dextran therapy can cause adverse effects like anaphylaxis or renal failure, but it is not a general contraindication for all colloid administration in the treatment of hypovolemia.