ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology Online Practice 2023 B Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 43-year-old woman with multiple sclerosis has not been treated with medication because of only having mild symptoms. Now, she has bilateral lower extremity weakness and urinary complaints. She has begun on mitoxantrone. Which of the following adverse effects must the treating physician be aware of?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Mitoxantrone for MS progression risks hepatitis . This chemotherapeutic damages liver cells, requiring monitoring. Anxiety , hypopyrexia , muscle strength , and leukocytosis (E) aren't primary. Hepatotoxicity, with cardiotoxicity, is a key concern in this worsening MS case.
Question 2 of 5
The patient has been prescribed dextromethorphan (Delsym). What medication information should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Dextromethorphan with alcohol risks slurred speech . Smoking and timing are off. D ensures safety, making it key.
Question 3 of 5
When monitoring a patient who is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL), the nurse notes that which drug is most likely to cause a severe interaction with the diuretic?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Digitalis (e.g., Digoxin) and hydrochlorothiazide can cause a severe interaction because hydrochlorothiazide can reduce potassium levels in the body. Low potassium levels (hypokalemia) can increase the risk of digitalis toxicity, leading to dangerous effects on the heart.
Therefore, patients taking hydrochlorothiazide along with digitalis need close monitoring of their potassium levels and potential adjustments to their digitalis therapy. It is important to communicate this risk to the healthcare team to ensure patient safety.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving warfarin (Coumadin) and notes bruising and petechiae on the patient's extremities. The nurse will request an order for which laboratory test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Bruising and petechiae on a patient's extremities are signs of potential thrombocytopenia, which is a decrease in platelet count. Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant that works by interfering with the body's ability to use vitamin K to form blood clots. While the International normalized ratio (INR) is often used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, and PTT and aPTT may also be relevant in certain cases, the presence of bruising and petechiae suggest a potential issue with platelet levels.
Therefore, checking the patient's platelet level with a laboratory test is appropriate in this situation to assess for thrombocytopenia.
Question 5 of 5
A 38-year-old man who is obese complains of an extremely painful, swollen metatarsophalangeal joint of his left big toe. He presents to his primary care physician for evaluation. He has had two similar attacks in the past 4 years. The physician prescribes probenecid. Which of the following describes probenecid's mechanism of action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Gout (recurrent toe pain) is treated with probenecid , which inhibits urate reabsorption in the proximal tubule, increasing uric acid excretion. Anti-inflammatory and leukocyte migration inhibition are colchicine's effects. Xanthine oxidase inhibition is allopurinol's. Upregulation (E) is wrong. Probenecid's uricosuric action reduces urate levels, preventing attacks.