Questions 73

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

ATI RN Exit Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 5

A healthcare provider is planning to delegate client assignments to the assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks is appropriate for the healthcare provider to delegate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: Transporting a client to x-ray.' This task is appropriate for delegation to assistive personnel as it involves transferring the client safely from one location to another, which does not require the specialized skills of a healthcare provider. Adjusting the flow rate of the client's oxygen tank (
Choice
A) involves making clinical decisions that should be done by a licensed healthcare provider. Collecting a urine sample (
Choice
B) and measuring the client's pain level (
Choice
C) require critical thinking and assessment skills that are typically within the scope of practice of licensed healthcare providers, not assistive personnel.

Question 2 of 5

What is the appropriate intervention when a patient experiences a fall?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate intervention when a patient experiences a fall is to assess for injuries. This immediate action helps in identifying any harm or complications resulting from the fall, allowing for timely intervention. Calling for help may be necessary after assessing the injuries, but the priority is to evaluate the patient's condition. Documenting the fall is important for record-keeping purposes but should come after ensuring the patient's safety. Notifying the healthcare provider can be done once the assessment has been completed and any necessary initial interventions have been initiated.

Question 3 of 5

A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin should avoid leafy green vegetables because they are high in vitamin K, which can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin by counteracting its anticoagulant effects.

Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements related to taking warfarin. Regular INR monitoring is necessary to ensure the medication is within the therapeutic range, using a soft toothbrush reduces the risk of bleeding gums, and taking the medication at the same time daily helps maintain consistent blood levels.

Question 4 of 5

Which electrolyte imbalance is common in patients receiving diuretics?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Diuretics, such as furosemide, commonly cause potassium loss in patients, leading to hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Hypercalcemia (
Choice
B) is not typically associated with diuretic use. Hyponatremia (
Choice
C) involves low sodium levels and can occur in conditions like syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) but is not directly caused by diuretics. Hypermagnesemia (
Choice
D) is an excess of magnesium, usually not a common electrolyte imbalance induced by diuretics.

Question 5 of 5

A nurse is caring for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In a client with pneumonia, crackles in the lung bases can indicate fluid accumulation, worsening of the condition, or development of complications such as pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported to the provider promptly for further evaluation and management.

Choices A, B, and D are common in clients with pneumonia and may not necessarily require immediate reporting unless accompanied by other concerning symptoms or vital sign abnormalities.

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