ATI RN
2023 Pharmacology ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is receiving digoxin 0.25 mg/day as part of treatment for HF. The nurse assesses the patient before medication administration. Which assessment finding would be of most concern?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The most concerning assessment finding for a patient receiving digoxin is a low serum potassium level (Option
C). Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity, as low potassium levels enhance the effect of digoxin on the myocardium, leading to an increased risk of serious dysrhythmias. It is important to address and correct hypokalemia promptly to prevent potential adverse effects of digoxin. An apical heart rate of 58 beats/min (Option
A) could be an expected finding for a patient on digoxin, and ankle edema +1 bilaterally (Option
B) is a common symptom of heart failure. A serum digoxin level of 0.8 ng/mL (Option
D) is within the therapeutic range for digoxin and is not concerning in the absence of other symptoms.
Therefore, managing the low serum potassium level is of utmost
Question 2 of 5
Glyceryl trinitrate for angina is most effective when given in what route?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Glyceryl trinitrate, also known as nitroglycerin, is most effective for the treatment of angina when given sublingually (under the tongue). This route allows for rapid absorption of the medication directly into the bloodstream, providing quick relief of angina symptoms. Sublingual administration ensures the drug bypasses the first-pass metabolism in the liver, resulting in higher bioavailability compared to oral administration. The sublingual route also allows for a faster onset of action, making it the preferred route for the management of acute angina episodes.
Question 3 of 5
Which drug classes are considered first-line treatment for heart failure? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The drug classes considered first-line treatments for heart failure include Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, Angiotensin II receptor blockers (ARBs), and Beta blockers.
Question 4 of 5
When starting a patient on antidysrhythmic therapy, the nurse will remember that which problem is a potential adverse effect of any antidysrhythmic drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: While it may seem counterintuitive that starting a patient on antidysrhythmic therapy could potentially cause dysrhythmias, it is important to remember that antidysrhythmic drugs can have proarrhythmic effects. Proarrhythmia refers to the development of new or more severe dysrhythmias as a result of the medication intended to treat dysrhythmias. This can occur due to various mechanisms, such as altering the electrical conduction system of the heart or disrupting the normal rhythm.
Therefore, dysrhythmias are a potential adverse effect that the nurse should monitor for when initiating antidysrhythmic therapy in a patient. It is crucial for the healthcare team to closely monitor the patient's cardiac rhythm and adjust the medication regimen as needed to minimize the risk of proarrhythmia.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is caring for a patient with colorectal cancer who is to receive fluorouracil. Which symptom will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fluorouracil, an antimetabolite chemotherapy drug, can cause myelosuppression, leading to a decrease in platelets (thrombocytopenia). Bleeding gums is a sign of low platelet counts and potential bleeding risk, which can be life-threatening if not addressed promptly. Nausea, decreased appetite, and constipation are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not as urgent as bleeding gums, which indicates a potential hematologic emergency. The nurse should report this symptom immediately to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and intervention, such as platelet transfusion or dose adjustment.