ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse plans medication education for a client who receives a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). What will the best plan by the nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sildenafil (Viagra), a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor for erectile dysfunction, has a recommended dosing limit of one pill per 24 hours to prevent overdose risks like prolonged erections or cardiovascular strain, making this a critical safety instruction. Grapefruit juice actually increases sildenafil levels by inhibiting metabolism, not decreasing effects, which could heighten side effects. Timing is optimal at 1 hour before sex, with effectiveness possible up to 4 hours, not 6, ensuring accurate expectations. Taking it on an empty stomach enhances absorption, as food-especially high-fat meals-delays onset, contrary to the food suggestion. The 24-hour limit is foundational for safe use, balancing efficacy with minimizing adverse effects like headache or hypotension, and aligns with standard prescribing guidelines, making it the priority in client education.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by blocking the effects of aldosterone in the distal tubules of the kidney, leading to increased excretion of sodium and water while retaining potassium. This class of diuretics helps to conserve potassium, making them suitable for patients at risk of hypokalemia. In contrast, furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics, thiazide diuretics, and another loop diuretic, respectively, which all promote the loss of potassium along with sodium and water.
Question 3 of 5
The following drugs are considered safe in lactation:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: These drugs are generally safe during breastfeeding, with minimal risk of transfer to the infant.
Question 4 of 5
The following drugs are reversible competitive antagonists:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Naloxone is a reversible competitive antagonist at opioid receptors, reversing opioid effects by competing for binding without activating the receptor.
Question 5 of 5
A patient with a new prescription for a HMG-CoA (statin) drug is instructed to take the
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse's best response is D: "This timeframe correlates better with the natural diurnal rhythm of cholesterol production." This explanation is accurate and helps the patient understand the rationale behind the timing of taking the HMG-CoA (statin) drug. Cholesterol production in the body typically follows a natural diurnal rhythm, with cholesterol synthesis peaking during the night. By taking the statin medication in the evening, it aligns with the body's cholesterol production pattern, making it more effective in reducing cholesterol levels. This explanation supports the patient's understanding of the importance of timing in maximizing the medication's effectiveness.