Benzodiazepines are often the drug of choice for managing anxiety and insomnia. Which statement best explains why?

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Pharmacology Assessment 1 ATI Capstone Questions

Question 1 of 5

Benzodiazepines are often the drug of choice for managing anxiety and insomnia. Which statement best explains why?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Benzodiazepines (e.g., lorazepam) rapidly calm via GABA, making them highly effective for acute anxiety and insomnia, per clinical use. They carry dependence risk-not low. Insurance or cost varies, not unique. Effectiveness drives preference, despite risks, for quick relief.

Question 2 of 5

A patient on diuretic therapy calls the clinic because he™s had the flu, with terrible vomiting and

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement by the nurse is to instruct the patient to "stop taking the diuretic for a few days, and then restart it when you feel better." This is because the patient has been experiencing vomiting due to influenza, which can cause dehydration. Continuing the diuretic while experiencing such significant fluid loss can lead to further dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. It is important for the patient to pause the diuretic temporarily to allow the body to recover and then resume once the vomiting has subsided and hydration has improved. It's always best for patients to follow specific instructions given by healthcare providers in such situations.

Question 3 of 5

What is the unlabeled use for

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The unlabeled use for a medication refers to a use that is not approved by regulatory agencies but has shown effectiveness in clinical practice. In this case, the unlabeled use for a medication might be to treat PTSD (Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder). While the medication may not be specifically indicated for this condition, it may have shown benefits in managing the symptoms of PTSD based on clinical experience or research studies. It is important to note that using a medication for an unlabeled use should always be done under the supervision of a healthcare professional.

Question 4 of 5

Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic medication commonly used to treat hypertension (high blood pressure) and edema (fluid retention). It works by increasing the amount of water and salt that the kidneys remove from the blood, leading to decreased blood volume and lower blood pressure. Diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide are not used to treat inflammation, arrhythmias, or fungal infections, making option C the correct classification for this medication.

Question 5 of 5

One hour after receiving intravenous morphine sulfate, a patient reports generalized itching. The nurse assesses the patient and notes clear breath sounds, no rash, respirations of 14 breaths per minute, a heart rate of 68 beats per minute, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to prepare an epinephrine injection in case of an anaphylactic reaction. The patient's presentation of generalized itching could be a sign of an allergic reaction to morphine sulfate. It is important to be prepared for an anaphylactic reaction, which could potentially be life-threatening. Having epinephrine readily available allows for quick administration if needed to treat the allergic reaction. Reassuring the patient is also appropriate, but the priority in this situation is to be prepared for a possible serious allergic reaction. Administering naloxone to reverse opioid overdose is not indicated based on the patient's current vital signs and symptoms. Having resuscitation equipment available at the bedside is always a good practice, but preparing for an anaphylactic reaction takes precedence in this scenario.

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