ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A habitual user of a schedule-controlled drug abruptly stops using it. Within 8 h, she becomes anxious, starts to sweat, and gets severe abdominal pain with diarrhea. These symptoms intensify over the next 12 h, during which time she has a runny nose, is lacrimating, and has uncontrollable yawning and intensification of muscle cramping and jerking. Assuming that these are withdrawal symptoms in the patient due to her physical dependence, the drug most likely to be involved is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Meperidine, a synthetic opioid, causes physical dependence with chronic use. Abrupt cessation triggers classic opioid withdrawal: anxiety, sweating, abdominal pain, diarrhea (8-12 hours onset), escalating to rhinorrhea, lacrimation, yawning, and muscle cramps—matching the timeline and symptoms described. Alprazolam (benzodiazepine) withdrawal peaks later (days), with seizures and anxiety but less GI distress. Amphetamine withdrawal causes fatigue and depression, not this autonomic profile. Ethanol withdrawal includes tremors and seizures, typically 12-48 hours, differing from this rapid onset. Secobarbital (barbiturate) withdrawal resembles benzodiazepines, with delayed seizures. Meperidine's mu receptor agonism explains the dependence and acute, opioid-specific withdrawal syndrome, aligning perfectly with the patient's presentation.
Question 2 of 5
A 74-year-old professional golfer has chest pain that occurs toward the end of his golfing games. He says the pain usually goes away after one or two sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and rest. What type of angina is he experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The 74-year-old professional golfer is likely experiencing Prinzmetal™s angina. This type of angina, also known as variant angina, typically occurs at rest and is due to coronary artery spasm, rather than the typical obstruction of blood flow seen in classic angina. The chest pain in Prinzmetal™s angina is often relieved by medications that dilate the blood vessels, such as nitroglycerin, as described by the patient. This distinguishes it from classic angina, which is typically triggered by exertion or emotional stress. Unstable angina, on the other hand, is characterized by chest pain that occurs unpredictably, even at rest and may signal an impending heart attack.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is working with a graduate nurse to prepare an intravenous dose of potassium. Which statement by the graduate nurse reflects a need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The statement "The intravenous potassium dose will be given undiluted" reflects a need for further teaching. Potassium should always be diluted before administration to prevent irritation of the veins and potential adverse effects, such as phlebitis or tissue damage. Diluting the medication helps to reduce the risk of complications, making it safer for the patient. Therefore, the correct approach is to dilute intravenous potassium before administering it to the patient.
Question 4 of 5
When teaching a patient about antihypertensive drug therapy, which statements by the nurse are correct? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A. You need to have your blood pressure checked once a week and keep track of the readings. - This is correct because monitoring blood pressure regularly is essential to assess the effectiveness of antihypertensive drug therapy and make any necessary adjustments.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is not a phenylpropionic derivatives:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mefenamic acid is not a phenylpropionic derivative. It is classified as a fenamate, structurally related to fenamic acid. The other options (A. ibuprofen, B. fenoprofen, C. naproxen) are all examples of phenylpropionic derivatives, commonly referred to as propionic acids. These drugs have similar chemical structures and mechanisms of action, making them a distinct group within the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) class.