A 63-year-old woman with a history of cardiac arrhythmia maintained on quinidine presents to her primary care physician complaining of frequency, urgency, and dysuria. Urine culture reveals >100,000 CFU/mL of Escherichia coli. She is given a prescription for ciprofloxacin 500 mg to be taken twice daily for 7 days. Which of the following sequelae could be problematic for this patient?

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Virtual ATI Pharmacology Assessment Questions

Question 1 of 5

A 63-year-old woman with a history of cardiac arrhythmia maintained on quinidine presents to her primary care physician complaining of frequency, urgency, and dysuria. Urine culture reveals >100,000 CFU/mL of Escherichia coli. She is given a prescription for ciprofloxacin 500 mg to be taken twice daily for 7 days. Which of the following sequelae could be problematic for this patient?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Quinidine and ciprofloxacin both prolong the QT interval, risking torsades de pointes. Option , QT prolongation, is correct-combined use heightens arrhythmia risk in this patient. Asystole , MI , pulmonary edema , and embolism (E) aren't directly linked. This drug interaction demands monitoring, critical given her cardiac history.

Question 2 of 5

The client receives hydroxychloroquine sulfate (Plaquenil). Which test does the nurse tell the client should be done on a regular basis?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Hydroxychloroquine risks retinal damage-regular eye exams (e.g., yearly) detect it early, per safety. Potassium, glucose, and BP aren't directly tied-retinopathy is key. Exams monitor vision, per protocol.

Question 3 of 5

The client receives beclomethasone (Beconase) intranasally as treatment for allergic rhinitis. He asks the nurse if this drug is safe because it is a glucocorticoid. What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Beclomethasone's low systemic absorption minimizes serious effects , reassuring its safety for rhinitis. Swallowing , duration , and dosing aren't primary concerns. A aligns with its safety profile, making it the best response.

Question 4 of 5

Atropine:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Atropine, a muscarinic antagonist, causes bronchodilation by relaxing bronchial smooth muscle, a true statement used in asthma or COPD. It produces mydriasis (pupil dilation), not miosis (constriction), making that false, as it blocks parasympathetic tone. It's highly lipid-soluble, crossing the blood-brain barrier, so that's false. It doesn't block acetylcholine (ACh) reuptake (there's no such mechanism) but competitively inhibits muscarinic receptors, so that's incorrect. It reduces, not increases, salivary secretions. Bronchodilation is a primary therapeutic effect, reflecting atropine's anticholinergic action, critical for respiratory applications and distinguishing it from sympathomimetics.

Question 5 of 5

Which of the following antipsychotic agents is most associated with the possibility of a hematological dyscrasia such as agranulocytosis in a patient being treated for schizophrenia?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Clozapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, is highly effective for treatment-resistant schizophrenia but carries a 1-2% risk of agranulocytosis, a severe drop in neutrophils, necessitating regular blood monitoring. Chlorpromazine causes rare leukopenia, not agranulocytosis prominence. Buspirone, an anxiolytic, lacks hematological risks. Lithium may increase leukocytes, not decrease them. Asenapine has minimal blood dyscrasia association. Clozapine's unique efficacy comes with this rare but serious side effect, distinguishing it and requiring strict oversight, per FDA guidelines.

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