ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Regarding first pass metabolism:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The extraction ratio (ER = hepatic clearance / liver blood flow) quantifies first-pass metabolism's impact on bioavailability (F = 1 - ER), a true statement. It doesn't directly affect volume of distribution, which is a distribution parameter, so that's false. Oral morphine's bioavailability is ~20-30%, not exactly 15%, but close, though false per key. Phenytoin's extraction ratio is low, not high, due to capacity-limited metabolism. Lidocaine's high first-pass effect prevents oral efficacy, true. The ER formula is foundational in pharmacokinetics, predicting oral drug availability.
Question 2 of 5
The following statements concerning renal drug handling are correct:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The kidneys filter approximately 130 mL/min of protein-free plasma, which is the glomerular filtration rate in healthy adults.
Question 3 of 5
The patient has been receiving amitriptyline (Elavil) for 2 weeks. He tells the nurse he doesn't think this medicine is working, as he is still depressed. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Amitriptyline requires 2-6 weeks for full antidepressant effect, increasing neurotransmitters gradually. After 2 weeks, persistent depression is expected, so 'It can take several weeks' educates on the timeline, encouraging adherence. Choice B dismisses feelings, risking trust. Choice C assumes failure prematurely. Choice D exaggerates to months, discouraging patience. A provides accurate, supportive guidance, aligning with tricyclic pharmacology, making it the best response.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is giving instructions to a client receiving phenytoin (Dilantin). The nurse concludes that the client has a sufficient knowledge if the client states that:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring the serum phenytoin level is crucial when taking phenytoin (Dilantin) because phenytoin has a narrow therapeutic range. Having regular blood tests to check the drug levels ensures that the medication is within the effective range and helps prevent toxicity or ineffectiveness. This also allows healthcare providers to adjust the dosage if needed, based on the serum level results. It is an essential part of managing phenytoin therapy and ensuring its effectiveness while minimizing the risk of adverse reactions.
Question 5 of 5
A client with juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma who is receiving dexamethasone (Decadron) 4mg/IV every 6 hours to relieve symptoms of right arm weakness and headache. Which of the following assessments will concern the nurse most?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Dexamethasone (Decadron) is a corticosteroid used to reduce inflammation and edema in brain tumors. A client no longer recognizing family members indicates a potential worsening of neurological status, such as increased intracranial pressure or tumor progression, which is a critical concern. Elevated blood glucose and weight gain are common side effects of steroids but are less urgent. Persistent headaches are expected but less concerning than cognitive changes. Therefore, cognitive decline is the most alarming assessment.