ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Made Easy 4.0 The Hematologic System Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 53-year-old man spends his mornings outside gardening. He frequently develops tension headaches, and the only medication he keeps at home is aspirin. After taking two regular-sized aspirin tablets almost daily for a few weeks, which of the following side effects is he most at risk for?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Daily aspirin for weeks risks tinnitus , a COX-inhibition side effect from salicylate buildup. Angina , insomnia , and nephrolithiasis aren't typical. Hypercoagulability opposes its action. Tinnitus reflects ototoxicity, common with frequent use.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin (Vancocin). Which infusion-related reaction should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Vancomycin, used for resistant infections, can cause red man syndrome 'flushing, rash, and pruritus on the upper body'due to histamine release from rapid IV infusion. Monitoring for this allows slowing the rate (e.g., over 1-2 hours), preventing discomfort or anaphylactoid reactions. Hypotension may occur secondary to this but isn't primary. Fever and nausea are less specific to infusion speed. Red man syndrome's distinct presentation ties directly to vancomycin's administration, a well-known risk mitigated by nursing vigilance. This focus ensures safe delivery, distinguishing it from systemic effects, making A the key reaction to watch during infusion.
Question 3 of 5
What decreases the renin angiotensin aldosterone system?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: ACE inhibitors decrease the renin angiotensin aldosterone system by blocking the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), which converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II. By inhibiting this enzyme, ACE inhibitors reduce the production of angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor, and lower aldosterone secretion. This leads to vasodilation, decreased blood pressure, and reduced retention of sodium and water. Consequently, ACE inhibitors are commonly used in the management of hypertension, heart failure, and chronic kidney disease.
Question 4 of 5
A 17-year-old client is taking phenytoin (Dilantin) for the treatment of seizures. Phenytoin blood level reveals to be 25 mcg/ml. Which of the following symptoms would be expected as a result of the laboratory result?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A phenytoin level of 25 mcg/ml is above the therapeutic range (10-20 mcg/ml) and can cause toxicity symptoms such as nystagmus, ataxia, and confusion. Hyperactivity and tremors are not typical signs of phenytoin toxicity. Therefore, nystagmus is the expected symptom.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has been taking a beta blocker for 4 weeks as part of his antianginal therapy. He also has type II diabetes and hyperthyroidism. When discussing possible adverse effects, the nurse will include which information?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Option E is the correct answer. When a patient with type II diabetes is taking a beta blocker, it's important to monitor blood glucose levels regularly for possible changes in glucose levels. Beta blockers can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as tremors and rapid heartbeat, which can make it harder for patients to recognize when their blood sugar is too low. On the other hand, beta blockers can also potentially lead to hyperglycemia as they can blunt the body's response to hypoglycemia by inhibiting the release of counter-regulatory hormones like epinephrine. Therefore, monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial in such patients to prevent complications related to blood sugar fluctuations.