ATI RN
ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 2 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
A 52-year-old woman with a history of recurrent urinary tract infections complains of easy bruising as well as chronic fatigue. She is maintained on daily antibiotic prophylaxis with trimethoprim. Which of the following hematologic effects is likely as a result of long-term therapy with trimethoprim?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Trimethoprim's folate antagonism with long-term use causes megaloblastic anemia . Bruising and fatigue reflect impaired erythropoiesis. Aplastic anemia , microcytic , normocytic , and pernicious (E) don't fit. This reversible effect requires folate supplementation.
Question 2 of 5
A 74-year-old professional golfer has chest pain that occurs toward the end of his golfing games. He says the pain usually goes away after one or two sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and rest. What type of angina is he experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The 74-year-old professional golfer is likely experiencing Prinzmetal™s angina, also known as variant angina. This type of angina is characterized by episodes of chest pain that occur at rest or during minimal physical exertion. It is caused by a spasm in the coronary arteries, leading to a temporary reduction or cessation of blood flow to the heart muscle. The chest pain associated with Prinzmetal™s angina can be severe and is often relieved by sublingual nitroglycerin, as described by the golfer. Additionally, the fact that the pain occurs towards the end of his golfing games suggests that it may be triggered by stress or exertion, common triggers for coronary artery spasm in Prinzmetal's angina.
Question 3 of 5
Regarding antibiotic resistance:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Beta-lactamase isn't the primary resistance mechanism in pneumococci (PBP alteration is), so that's false. Penicillin's poor penetration into gram-negative bacteria due to outer membranes is a true statement, a common resistance factor. Altered penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs) drive pneumococcal resistance, not the main general mechanism, though true in context. Methicillin resistance in Staph (MRSA) is due to mecA gene producing altered PBPs, not just beta-lactamase, so that's false. Penetration issues in gram-negatives are a fundamental barrier, guiding beta-lactam design like piperacillin.
Question 4 of 5
When administering the opioid Morphine to a patient, it is given in doses of
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct dosing regimen for Morphine typically ranges from 2-5 mg every 3-4 hours as needed for pain. This dosing schedule allows for effective management of pain while monitoring for potential side effects and adjusting the dosage according to the patient's response. Options B, C, and D have dosing regimens that are not within the typical range for Morphine administration and could lead to inappropriate dosing and potential harm to the patient.
Question 5 of 5
The patient asks the nurse why she needs to continue using table salt because her prescribed lithium (Eskalith) is a salt. What is the best response by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lithium's renal clearance depends on sodium levels; low sodium causes lithium retention, risking toxicity (e.g., tremors, confusion). 'You must use table salt or your kidneys will retain lithium' explains this, ensuring safe levels. Choice A confuses with sea salt. Choice C risks toxicity by reacting late. Choice D downplays sodium's role. B educates accurately, making it the best response.