ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Questions and Answers PDF Questions
Question 1 of 9
When assessing the patient for hypoxemia, the nurse recognizes what as an early sign of the effect of hypoxemia on the cardiovascular system?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Hypoxemia results in decreased oxygen levels in the blood, stimulating the body to increase heart rate to improve oxygen delivery. Tachycardia is an early sign of the cardiovascular system compensating for hypoxemia. Heart block (A) is a disruption in the electrical conduction within the heart and is not directly related to hypoxemia. Restlessness (B) is a non-specific sign and can be caused by various factors. Tachypnea (D) is an increased respiratory rate, which is a response to hypoxemia but not a direct effect on the cardiovascular system.
Question 2 of 9
A patient who is undergoing withdrawal of mechanical ventilation appears anxious and agitated. The patient is on a continuous morphine infusion and has an additional order for lorazepam 1 to 2 mg IV as needed (prn). The patient has received no lorazepam during this course of illness. What is the most appropriate nursing intearbvirbe.ncotmio/tnes tt o control agitation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice B is correct: 1. Midazolam is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiolysis. 2. It acts quickly and has a short duration of action, suitable for acute agitation. 3. Lorazepam (also a benzodiazepine) is in the same drug class, ensuring compatibility. 4. Lorazepam is specifically ordered for this patient, indicating its appropriateness. 5. Administering midazolam addresses the patient's agitation efficiently and safely. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: A: Fentanyl is an opioid analgesic, not ideal for managing agitation. C: Increasing morphine infusion can exacerbate sedation or respiratory depression. D: Paralytic agents are used for neuromuscular blockade, not agitation control.
Question 3 of 9
Which statement is true regarding venous thromboembolisambir b(.VcoTm/Ete)s ta nd pulmonary embolus (PE)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because PE should be suspected in patients with unexplained cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE. This is important because PE can present with nonspecific symptoms, making it crucial to consider it in the differential diagnosis. Explanation: 1. PE can present with various symptoms, including dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis, but these are not present in all patients. 2. Bradycardia and hyperventilation are not classic symptoms of PE, as it can present with tachycardia and other respiratory findings. 3. Critically ill patients are actually at higher risk for VTE and PE, so prophylaxis is typically recommended. In summary, choice A is correct because it emphasizes the importance of considering PE in patients with cardiorespiratory complaints and risk factors for VTE, while the other choices contain inaccuracies or incomplete information.
Question 4 of 9
What is the focus of the synergy model of practice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the synergy model of practice emphasizes considering the needs of patients and their families, which in turn drives nursing competency. This approach recognizes that patient care is not just about the individual but also about the broader support system. This holistic viewpoint helps nurses tailor their care to meet the unique needs of each patient and their family, ultimately leading to better outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A: Allowing unrestricted visiting for the patient 24 hours is not directly related to the focus of the synergy model which is more about patient-centered care. B: Providing holistic and alternative therapies is a valid approach, but it is not the primary focus of the synergy model. D: Addressing the patients' needs for energy and support is important but does not capture the comprehensive nature of the synergy model which encompasses the needs of both patients and their families.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is assessing a patient with a new arteriovenous fistula, but does not hear a bruit or feel a thrill. Pulses distal to the fistula are not palpable. The nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: notify the provider immediately. The absence of bruit, thrill, and palpable distal pulses in a new arteriovenous fistula suggests potential complications like thrombosis or stenosis, requiring urgent intervention. Notifying the provider promptly allows for timely assessment and appropriate management to prevent further complications. Summary: A: Reassessing the patient in an hour may delay necessary intervention for a potentially serious issue. B: Raising the arm above the level of the patient’s heart does not address the underlying problem and may not improve the situation. D: Applying warm packs to the fistula site is not the appropriate intervention for the absence of bruit and thrill and may not address the underlying cause.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is developing a teaching plan for an adolescent with a Milwaukee brace. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because wearing the Milwaukee brace over a T-shirt ensures proper skin protection and ventilation. This helps prevent skin irritation and allows for comfortable wearing for long periods. Choice B may cause skin issues due to friction. Choice C is incorrect as moisture from showering can lead to skin problems. Choice D is incorrect as consistent wear is crucial for brace effectiveness.
Question 7 of 9
What is the nurse’s priority intervention when a terminally ill patient reports severe breakthrough pain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a prescribed PRN opioid analgesic. This is the priority intervention because severe breakthrough pain requires immediate relief, and opioids are the most effective for managing severe pain in terminally ill patients. Warm compresses (A) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Reassessing pain after 2 hours (C) delays necessary relief. Distraction techniques (D) are not appropriate for severe breakthrough pain as they do not directly address the pain itself. Administering the prescribed opioid analgesic promptly is crucial for providing timely and effective pain management in this situation.
Question 8 of 9
Two unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are arguing on the unit about who deserves to take a break first. What is the most important basic guideline that the nurse should follow in resolving the conflict?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Deal with issues and not personalities. This guideline is important because it focuses on resolving the conflict based on the actual problem at hand, rather than personal biases or emotions. By addressing the issues causing the argument, the nurse can help the UAPs find a fair and logical solution. A: Requiring the UAPs to reach a compromise may not address the root cause of the conflict and could lead to further disagreements. B: Weighing the consequences is important but may not be as effective in resolving the conflict as directly addressing the issues. C: Encouraging humor may temporarily diffuse the situation but may not lead to a lasting resolution.
Question 9 of 9
What factors associated with the critical care unit can pred ispose the client to increased pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The presence of an endotracheal tube can predispose the client to increased pain and anxiety due to discomfort, difficulty breathing, and potential for aspiration. The tube insertion process itself can be painful and traumatic. Frequent vital sign assessment, monitor alarms, and room temperature are not directly associated with increased pain and anxiety from the endotracheal tube.