ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is teaching a patient to care for her new ocular prosthesis. What should the nurse emphasize during the patients health education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The need to perform thorough hand hygiene before handling the prosthesis. This is crucial to prevent infection. By washing hands thoroughly, the patient reduces the risk of introducing harmful bacteria or pathogens to the prosthesis, which could lead to infections or other complications. Incorrect Choices: A: The need to limit exposure to bright light - This is not directly related to caring for an ocular prosthesis. B: The need to maintain a low Fowlers position when removing the prosthesis - Positioning is not typically a concern when caring for an ocular prosthesis. D: The need to apply antiviral ointment to the prosthesis daily - Antiviral ointment is not a standard part of ocular prosthesis care unless specifically prescribed by a healthcare provider for a particular reason.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is assessing the skin integrity of a patient who has AIDS. When performing this inspection, the nurse should prioritize assessment of what skin surfaces?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perianal region and oral mucosa. In patients with AIDS, these areas are more prone to opportunistic infections due to decreased immune function. The perianal region can be affected by conditions like anal warts or herpes, while the oral mucosa can develop oral thrush or other oral infections. By prioritizing assessment of these areas, the nurse can promptly identify any potential issues and initiate appropriate interventions. Choice B: Sacral region and lower abdomen are not typically high-risk areas for skin integrity issues in AIDS patients. Choice C: Scalp and skin over the scapulae are not commonly affected by opportunistic infections related to AIDS. Choice D: Axillae and upper thorax are not as commonly affected as the perianal region and oral mucosa in AIDS patients.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assisting a patient in making dietarychoices that promote healthy bowel elimination. Which menu option should the nurse recommend?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it includes fiber-rich whole wheat bread, grapes, and walnuts which promote healthy bowel elimination. Whole wheat bread and fruits provide dietary fiber that aids in digestion and prevents constipation. Walnuts are high in omega-3 fatty acids which can also help with bowel regularity. Option A (Broccoli and cheese soup with potato bread) lacks fiber and may cause constipation due to the low fiber content. Option B (Turkey and mashed potatoes with brown gravy) may be low in fiber and high in fat, which can slow down digestion. Option D (Dinner salad topped with hard-boiled eggs, cheese, and fat-free dressing) is a healthier choice but may lack sufficient fiber for promoting healthy bowel elimination compared to option C.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse has observed that an older adult patient with a diagnosis of end-stage renal failure seems to prefer to have his eldest son make all of his health care decisions. While the family is visiting, the patient explains to you that this is a cultural practice and very important to him. How should you respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Work with the team to negotiate informed consent. In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize respecting the patient's cultural beliefs while also ensuring the patient's autonomy and right to make decisions about his own healthcare. By working with the healthcare team to negotiate informed consent, the nurse can involve both the patient and his eldest son in the decision-making process, ensuring that the patient's preferences are respected while also upholding ethical principles of patient autonomy and beneficence. This approach promotes collaboration and respect for cultural values while still safeguarding the patient's rights. Choice A is incorrect because it does not involve the patient in the decision-making process and could undermine his autonomy. Choice B is incorrect as it disregards the patient's cultural beliefs and preferences. Choice D is incorrect as it may violate the patient's right to information and involvement in his own care.
Question 5 of 9
An oncology nurse educator is providing health education to a patient who has been diagnosed with skin cancer. The patients wife has asked about the differences between normal cells and cancer cells. What characteristic of a cancer cell should the educator cite?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Malignant cells contain proteins called tumor-specific antigens. Tumor-specific antigens are unique to cancer cells and are not found in normal cells. This characteristic distinguishes cancer cells from normal cells and is important in cancer detection and treatment. A: Malignant cells do not necessarily contain more fibronectin than normal body cells. Fibronectin is a glycoprotein found in the extracellular matrix and is not a defining characteristic of cancer cells. C: Chromosomes in cancer cells are actually more prone to instability and mutations compared to normal cells, making them less durable and stable. D: The nuclei of cancer cells can vary in size and shape, with irregularities often seen, rather than being unusually large and regularly shaped.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with erectile dysfunction; the cause has been determined to be psychogenic. The patients interdisciplinary plan of care should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Psychotherapy. In the case of psychogenic erectile dysfunction, the underlying cause is psychological rather than physical. Psychotherapy helps address the mental health factors contributing to the condition, such as anxiety or relationship issues. It can help the patient understand and manage their emotions, thoughts, and behaviors related to the dysfunction. Penile implant (A) and PDE-5 inhibitors (B) are more appropriate for physical causes of erectile dysfunction. Physical therapy (C) focuses on musculoskeletal conditions and would not be effective for psychogenic causes.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is providing health education to a patient newly diagnosed with glaucoma. The nurse teaches the patient that this disease has a familial tendency. The nurse should encourage the patients immediate family members to undergo clinical examinations how often?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: At least once every 2 years. Glaucoma has a familial tendency, meaning it can run in families. Regular eye exams are crucial for early detection and treatment. Having family members undergo clinical examinations every 2 years allows for timely identification of any potential signs of glaucoma. Monthly exams (A) would be too frequent and unnecessary. Exams every 5 years (C) or 10 years (D) are too infrequent and may miss early signs of the disease. Regular biennial exams strike a balance between early detection and practicality.
Question 8 of 9
A 57-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining that when he has an erection his penis curves and becomes painful. The patients diagnosis is identified as severe Peyronies disease. The nurse should be aware of what likely treatment modality?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Surgery. Surgery is the most effective treatment modality for severe Peyronie's disease as it can correct the penile curvature and alleviate pain. Physical therapy (A) may not be effective in severe cases. PDE-5 inhibitors (B) are used for erectile dysfunction but do not treat the underlying Peyronie's disease. Intracapsular hydrocortisone injections (C) may be used for less severe cases, but in severe cases, surgery is recommended for optimal outcomes.
Question 9 of 9
A patient has been prescribed sildenafil. What should the nurse teach the patient about this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because sildenafil works by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide, which is released during sexual stimulation to relax the muscles in the penis and increase blood flow for an erection. Therefore, sexual stimulation is necessary for the medication to be effective. Explanation of other choices: B: While sildenafil is typically taken 30 minutes to 4 hours before sexual activity, it does not need to be exactly 1 hour prior. C: Facial flushing and headache are common side effects of sildenafil but do not require immediate reporting unless severe or persistent. D: Sildenafil may cause temporary visual disturbances like changes in color vision, but permanent visual changes are rare.