The nurse is performing a mental health assessment on a 5-year-old girl. Her parents are in the middle of a bitter divorce and are worried about the effect it is having on their daughter. Which of the following might lead the nurse to be concerned about the girl's mental health?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it indicates a potential concern about the girl's mental health. This behavior may suggest a difficulty in socializing with peers of her own age, which could be a sign of emotional distress or developmental issues. This is concerning in the context of her parents' bitter divorce. A: Clinging to her mother is a common behavior for a child going through a stressful situation, so it may not necessarily indicate a mental health issue. B: Appearing angry and avoiding eye contact could also be a normal reaction to stress or discomfort. C: Riding a tricycle is a typical activity for a 5-year-old and may not directly relate to mental health concerns.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Specific client issues. A focused assessment is a targeted examination that addresses specific client concerns or issues. By focusing on a particular aspect of the client's health, healthcare providers can gather relevant information efficiently and effectively. This approach allows for a more in-depth evaluation of the specific problem at hand, leading to better treatment outcomes. Choice A (Comprehensive physical findings) is incorrect because a focused assessment does not aim to gather information on all physical findings, but rather on specific issues. Choice C (Multiple body systems) is incorrect because a focused assessment is more narrow in scope and typically focuses on one area or system of the body. Choice D (Long-term wellness goals) is incorrect as a focused assessment is more immediate and targeted towards addressing current issues rather than long-term goals.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the client in a supine position. This is the first action because it helps prevent further injury to the spinal cord by maintaining alignment. Immobilizing the spine (choice A) is important but should come after placing the client in a supine position. Assessing the client's airway (choice B) is crucial but not the first action in a spinal cord injury. Encouraging deep breathing (choice D) is not appropriate as the priority is to stabilize the spine. In summary, placing the client in a supine position is the initial step to prevent worsening of the spinal cord injury, while the other choices are important but secondary actions.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because it accurately reflects the patient's chief complaint of having black stools in the last 24 hours, which is a concerning symptom suggestive of gastrointestinal bleeding. This documentation is specific and focused on the reason for seeking care, prioritizing the urgent nature of the symptom. Choice A is incorrect because it does not mention the presenting symptom of black stools. Choice B is incorrect as it does not directly state the reason for seeking care. Choice C is incorrect as it focuses on the patient's self-diagnosis of ulcerative colitis rather than the current concerning symptom of black stools.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Encouraging early ambulation to prevent deep vein thrombosis. Early ambulation helps prevent blood clot formation in the legs, reducing the risk of deep vein thrombosis post-surgery. It also promotes circulation and aids in preventing complications like pneumonia. Administering pain medication (B) is important, but preventing complications should take priority. Providing wound care (C) is essential but not the top priority. Encouraging a high-protein diet (D) is beneficial for healing, but immediate post-operative mobility is crucial for preventing complications.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, perform a lumbar puncture. A positive Brudzinski sign indicates meningeal irritation, a hallmark of meningitis. A lumbar puncture is the gold standard for diagnosing meningitis by analyzing cerebrospinal fluid. Placing the client on their back without proper diagnosis or treatment delays could lead to serious complications. Option B is incorrect as antibiotics should be given after confirming the diagnosis. Option C is partially correct but does not address the need for a definitive diagnostic test. Option A is incorrect as pain medication alone does not address the underlying cause of meningitis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is a crucial parameter to monitor for clients on anticoagulant therapy, as it measures the effectiveness of the medication in preventing blood clots. By monitoring INR levels, the nurse can ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting complications. Choice A (Monitor platelet count) is incorrect because anticoagulant therapy does not directly affect platelet count, and monitoring platelets is more relevant for clients on antiplatelet therapy. Choice C (Monitor bleeding) is partially correct, but focusing solely on monitoring bleeding may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to anticoagulant therapy. Choice D (Monitor renal function) is incorrect as anticoagulant therapy primarily affects coagulation factors and not renal function. Renal function monitoring may be necessary for certain medications but is not a primary consideration for anticoagulant therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct quadrant for tenderness in suspected appendicitis is the lower right quadrant (Choice C). This is because the appendix is located in the lower right abdomen. Appendicitis typically presents with pain starting around the navel and then localizing to the lower right quadrant. The other choices, upper right (Choice A), upper left (Choice B), and lower left (Choice D) are incorrect as they do not correspond to the typical location of the appendix. Upper right quadrant is where the liver and gallbladder are situated, upper left quadrant contains the stomach and spleen, and lower left quadrant has the colon and left ovary/testis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action is A: Apply pressure and elevate the limb. This is because applying pressure helps control bleeding and elevating the limb reduces blood flow to the area, minimizing further blood loss. This immediate intervention is crucial in managing the traumatic amputation and preventing complications. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Stopping bleeding and controlling shock can be important but not the first action. C: Placing the client in a Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is contraindicated in cases of traumatic amputation as it can increase bleeding. D: Placing the client in a sitting position is not appropriate as it can worsen bleeding and lead to further complications.