ATI RN
clinical skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis. The patient suddenly complains of abdominal pain and chills. The patient’s temperature is elevated. The nurse should
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: inform the provider of probable visceral perforation. This is the most urgent action as sudden abdominal pain, chills, and elevated temperature in a patient receiving peritoneal dialysis could indicate a serious complication like visceral perforation, which requires immediate medical attention to prevent further complications. Assessing peritoneal dialysate return (A) may provide some information but does not address the urgent need to address a potential visceral perforation. Checking the patient's blood sugar (B) and evaluating the patient's neurological status (C) are not priorities in this situation and do not address the potential life-threatening complication of visceral perforation.
Question 2 of 9
What is a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (80 mL/hour) as it is considered a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg. Adequate urine output is crucial for kidney function and fluid balance. The general rule is to maintain a urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hour, which in this case would be 37.5 mL/hour for a 75 kg patient. Option C (80 mL/hour) exceeds this minimum requirement, ensuring proper kidney perfusion and waste elimination. Options A (Less than 30 mL/hour) and D (150 mL/hour) are incorrect as they fall below or exceed the recommended urine output range, potentially indicating renal impairment or fluid overload, respectively. Option B (37 mL/hour) is close to the minimum requirement but does not provide a sufficient margin for variations in fluid status or kidney function.
Question 3 of 9
The patient has just returned from having an arteriovenous fistula placed. The patient asks, “When will they be able to use this and take this other catheter out?” The nurse should reply,
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: “The fistula will be usable in about 4 to 6 weeks.” This is because arteriovenous fistulas typically require a maturation period of 4 to 6 weeks before they can be used for dialysis. During this time, the fistula will develop into a strong, durable access point for hemodialysis. Choice A is incorrect because the fistula needs time to mature before it can be used, and immediate use may damage it. Choice B is incorrect as it underestimates the maturation period required. Choice D is incorrect as the maturation time does not depend on the manufacturer but on the patient's physiology and healing process.
Question 4 of 9
An individual with type 2 diabetes who takes glipizide has begun a formal exercise program at a local gym. While exercising on the treadmill, the individual becomes pale, diaphoretic, shaky, and has a headache. The individual feels as though she is going to pass out. What is the individual’s priority action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eat something with 15 g of simple carbohydrates. In this scenario, the individual is exhibiting signs of hypoglycemia due to the combination of glipizide (which can lower blood sugar) and exercise. The priority action is to raise blood sugar levels quickly to prevent further complications. Consuming simple carbohydrates, like glucose tablets or juice, will rapidly increase blood sugar levels. This is crucial to prevent the individual from passing out or experiencing more serious consequences. Choice A is incorrect because while hydration is important, it is not the immediate priority in this situation. Choice C is incorrect as going to the first-aid station may waste valuable time when immediate action is needed. Choice D is incorrect as taking another dose of the oral agent can further lower blood sugar levels and worsen the hypoglycemia.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone major abdominal surgery. The nurse notices that the patient’s urine output has been less than 20 mL/hour for the past 2 hours. The patient’s blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and the pulse is 110 beats/min. Previously, the pulse was 90 beats/min with a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse should
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Urine output < 20 mL/hour indicates potential hypoperfusion. 2. Decreased urine output with hypotension and tachycardia suggests inadequate fluid resuscitation. 3. Administering a normal saline bolus can help improve perfusion and stabilize blood pressure. 4. Contacting the provider promptly for orders is crucial in managing this acute situation. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B. Delaying reporting to the provider risks worsening the patient's condition. C. Continuing to evaluate urine output without intervention can lead to further deterioration. D. Ignoring the urine output due to potential postrenal causes overlooks the urgent need for fluid resuscitation.
Question 6 of 9
What psychosocial factors may potentially contribute to the development of diabetic ketoacidosis? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for correct answer A: Altered sleep/rest patterns can disrupt insulin regulation, leading to glucose imbalance and predisposing to diabetic ketoacidosis. Lack of sleep affects hormones that regulate blood sugar levels, increasing the risk of DKA. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Eating disorder can affect blood sugar control but is not a direct cause of DKA. C: Exposure to influenza may trigger stress on the body but is not a psychosocial factor contributing to DKA. D: High levels of stress can impact blood sugar levels but are not specific psychosocial factors leading to DKA.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. A continuous insulin intravenous infusion is started, and hourly bedside glucose monitoring is ordered. The targeted blood glucose value after the first hour of therapy is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values. In diabetic ketoacidosis, there is severe hyperglycemia which needs to be corrected gradually to prevent complications like cerebral edema. A rapid decrease in glucose levels can lead to osmotic shifts and neurological issues. The targeted decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL is considered safe and effective in managing hyperglycemia in these patients. This range ensures a controlled reduction in blood glucose levels without causing harm. Choice A (70 to 120 mg/dL) is too broad and may lead to overly aggressive treatment. Choice B (a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL) is too conservative and may not adequately address the high glucose levels seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D (less than 200 mg/dL) does not provide a specific target range for glucose reduction, which is essential in managing diabetic ketoacidosis effectively.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 83-year-old long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer's disease who recently developed influenza is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). This patient has multiple risk factors for HHS, including age, type 2 diabetes, advanced Alzheimer's disease, and the added stress of influenza, which can exacerbate hyperglycemia. The combination of these factors can lead to severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances characteristic of HHS. Choice A is incorrect because although excessive exercise can lead to hypoglycemia in individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is not a risk factor for HHS. Choice B is incorrect as forgetting to take insulin can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes, not HHS. Choice C is incorrect as starting insulin injections in a patient with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease does not automatically increase the risk
Question 9 of 9
In calculating the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) results for women, the creatinine clearance is usually:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: the same as for men. GFR is calculated based on factors like age, weight, and serum creatinine levels, which are not directly influenced by gender. Therefore, the creatinine clearance for women is the same as for men. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no inherent biological difference between men and women that would cause a difference in creatinine clearance for GFR calculation.