ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
The nurse is assessing the exhaled tidal volume (EV ) in a mechanically ventilated patient. T What is the rationale for this assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Determine the patient’s work of breathing. Assessing the exhaled tidal volume (EV) in a mechanically ventilated patient helps determine how much effort the patient is exerting to breathe. By monitoring the EV, the nurse can evaluate the patient's respiratory status and adjust ventilator settings if needed. It is crucial to ensure that the patient is not working too hard to breathe, as this can lead to respiratory distress. Incorrect answers: A: Assess for tension pneumothorax - Tension pneumothorax is typically assessed through other means such as physical examination and chest X-ray. B: Assess the level of positive end-expiratory pressure - The level of positive end-expiratory pressure is usually set based on the patient's condition and not solely based on the exhaled tidal volume. C: Compare the tidal volume delivered with the tidal volume prescribed - This comparison is important but does not directly relate to assessing the patient's work of breathing.
Question 2 of 5
What is the basic underlying pathophysiology of acute respiratory distress syndrome?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Damage to the type II pneumocytes, which produce surfactant. Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is characterized by damage to the alveolar epithelium, including type II pneumocytes responsible for producing surfactant. Surfactant reduces surface tension in the alveoli, preventing collapse. Damage to type II pneumocytes impairs surfactant production, leading to alveolar collapse and impaired gas exchange. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ARDS is not primarily caused by a decrease in white blood cells, damage to the right mainstem bronchus, or decreased capillary permeability.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse discharging a patient diagnosed with asthma ins tructs the patient to prevent exacerbation by taking what action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Taking all asthma medications as prescribed. This is the most appropriate action to prevent exacerbation of asthma symptoms. By taking medications as prescribed, the patient can effectively manage and control their asthma, reducing the risk of exacerbation. Following the prescribed medication regimen helps to keep inflammation in check and maintain airway function. Choice A is incorrect because while follow-up appointments are important, they do not directly prevent exacerbation. Choice B is incorrect as limiting activity may not address the underlying cause of exacerbation. Choice D is incorrect as taking medications on an "as needed" basis may not provide consistent control of asthma symptoms, leading to potential exacerbation.
Question 4 of 5
What diagnostic procedure is required to make a definitive diagnosis of pulmonary embolism?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: High resolution multidetector CT angiogram. This diagnostic procedure is required for a definitive diagnosis of pulmonary embolism because it provides detailed imaging of the pulmonary vasculature, allowing visualization of blood clots in the pulmonary arteries. A: Arterial blood gas (ABG) analysis does not directly diagnose pulmonary embolism but may show signs of hypoxemia or respiratory alkalosis, which can be seen in some cases of pulmonary embolism. B: Chest x-ray examination may show nonspecific findings such as atelectasis or pleural effusion but cannot definitively diagnose pulmonary embolism. D: Ventilation-perfusion scanning is another imaging modality used in the diagnosis of pulmonary embolism, but it is less commonly used compared to CT angiogram due to lower sensitivity and specificity.
Question 5 of 5
Which statement is true regarding oral care for the prevention of ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Implementing a comprehensive oral care program is an intervention for preventing VAP. This statement is true because proper oral care, including brushing teeth, oral suctioning, and using chlorhexidine gluconate, has been shown to reduce the risk of VAP by decreasing the colonization of pathogenic bacteria in the oral cavity. Regular oral care helps maintain oral hygiene and reduce the risk of aspiration of bacteria into the lungs, which is a common cause of VAP. Incorrect Answer Analysis: A: Tooth brushing every 2 hours may be excessive and could potentially cause harm to the oral mucosa, leading to increased risk of infection. C: While oral suctioning and brushing teeth are important components of oral care, the statement is not comprehensive enough to address the full range of interventions needed to prevent VAP. D: While chlorhexidine gluconate can be effective in preventing VAP, the statement implies that it is the only effective intervention, which is not true.