ATI RN
Concepts for Nursing Practice 3rd Edition Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy. Which finding would require immediate intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A blood pressure of 142/92 mmHg in a client in the third trimester of pregnancy is elevated and could indicate the development of preeclampsia, a serious hypertensive disorder that can have adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. Preeclampsia is characterized by high blood pressure accompanied by signs of organ damage, such as proteinuria and changes in other laboratory values. Immediate intervention is required in this situation, as preeclampsia can lead to complications such as seizures (eclampsia), stroke, and placental abruption. It is essential for the nurse to further assess the client and notify the healthcare provider promptly for appropriate management.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is concerned that a client admitted for a total hip replacement is at risk for thrombus formation. Which assessment finding caused the nurse to draw this conclusion?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A former cigarette smoker is at increased risk for thrombus formation due to the damage smoking causes to the blood vessels, increasing the likelihood of blood clots. Smoking can also contribute to inflammation and increased platelet activation, further promoting clot formation. This risk factor is particularly concerning in a client undergoing a total hip replacement surgery, as immobility and surgery itself can also increase the risk of blood clots forming. Monitoring and addressing this risk factor is important in preventing potential complications such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism in this client population. While the other assessment findings are important to consider for overall health, the former cigarette smoking status is specifically associated with thrombus formation in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client admitted to the hospital with lower extremity edema and shortness of breath. Which electrocardiogram finding indicates the client is at risk for an alteration in perfusion?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: An isoelectric ST segment on an electrocardiogram can indicate myocardial ischemia or injury, which can lead to a decrease in perfusion to the heart muscle. This finding suggests an increased risk of inadequate blood flow to the heart, potentially resulting in further complications such as a myocardial infarction or altered perfusion to other organs. In a client with lower extremity edema and shortness of breath, identifying this ECG finding is crucial for early intervention and monitoring to prevent further deterioration in perfusion status.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse has a 7-year-old client recovering from partial-thickness burns to the arms and hands. This client has shown sensitivity to loud noises and bright lights, and at times if she is overstimulated she won't speak to or look at anyone but her parents until she calms down. The nurse considers the best teaching environment for this client to be the
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For a 7-year-old client recovering from partial-thickness burns with sensitivity to loud noises and bright lights, along with a tendency to become overstimulated, the best teaching environment would be the client's room. This setting provides a familiar and comforting space where the client feels secure and less exposed to external stimuli that may trigger discomfort or anxiety. Being in her own room allows the client to focus better, feel more at ease, and have better communication with the nurse without distractions from bright lights, loud noises, or other people around. This controlled and peaceful environment contributes to a more effective teaching and learning experience for the client, promoting better understanding and retention of information.
Question 5 of 9
A client with sepsis has a temperature of 40°C. Which dysrhythmia is most likely to occur in this client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A client with sepsis and a temperature of 40°C is likely experiencing a systemic inflammatory response, which can lead to a variety of dysrhythmias. In this case, the client is more likely to develop a tachydysrhythmia (fast heart rate) due to the body's response to the infection. Sepsis can result in an increase in heart rate as the body tries to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs in response to the inflammatory process. Tachydysrhythmias such as supraventricular tachycardia or atrial fibrillation are commonly observed in septic patients with high fevers.
Question 6 of 9
What is the most accurate tool for assessing and diagnosing venous thrombosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Duplex venous ultrasonography is the most accurate tool for assessing and diagnosing venous thrombosis. It is a non-invasive imaging technique that combines Doppler flow studies with conventional ultrasonography. This allows for the visualization of blood flow in the veins and identification of any blood clots or obstructions. Duplex venous ultrasonography is highly sensitive and specific for detecting deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the lower extremities, making it the preferred imaging modality for diagnosing venous thrombosis. Other imaging modalities like ascending contrast venography, magnetic resonance imaging, and plethysmography are less commonly used due to their disadvantages compared to duplex venous ultrasonography such as invasiveness, cost, and lower accuracy.
Question 7 of 9
During an assessment, the nurse decides to assess a patient’s calcium level. Which action will the nurse take to identify a low calcium level?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The Trousseau’s sign test is used to identify low calcium levels in a patient. This test involves inflating a blood pressure cuff on the patient's arm above systolic pressure for a few minutes, which can trigger a carpal spasm (wrist and hand flexion) in patients with low calcium levels (hypocalcemia). This is due to increased neuromuscular irritability caused by low calcium levels. Therefore, conducting a Trousseau’s sign test is the appropriate action to identify a low calcium level in a patient. Palpating turgor of skin, observing the color of the skin, and saving urine to measure 17-ketosteroids are not relevant actions for assessing calcium levels.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has been vomiting for 4 hours. Which hormone will increase secretion in response to the physiologic changes caused by the vomiting?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Vomiting can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances due to the loss of fluids and electrolytes. In response to these physiologic changes caused by vomiting, aldosterone secretion will increase. Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal glands that acts on the kidneys to increase reabsorption of sodium and water, helping to maintain blood pressure and electrolyte balance. By increasing aldosterone secretion, the body aims to retain more sodium and water to counteract the effects of vomiting and prevent dehydration.
Question 9 of 9
A client is prescribed enalapril (Vasotec) for treatment of heart failure. Which adverse effect should the nurse assess for following the initial administration of this drug?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Enalapril is an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor commonly used in the treatment of heart failure. One of the potential adverse effects of ACE inhibitors, including enalapril, is hypotension or low blood pressure. This is especially a concern following the initial administration of the drug, as it can cause a significant drop in blood pressure. Nurses should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of hypotension, such as dizziness, light-headedness, weakness, or fainting, after starting enalapril therapy. Monitoring blood pressure regularly and educating the patient about the possibility of low blood pressure is important to ensure patient safety and optimal outcomes.