ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The nurse in a pediatric ICU is caring for a child who is dying of sickle cell anemia. The childs mother has been unable to eat or sleep and can talk only about her impending loss and the guilt she feels about the childs pain and suffering. What intervention has the highest priority?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Allowing the patient to express her feelings without judging her. This intervention has the highest priority as it focuses on providing emotional support and creating a safe space for the mother to express her emotions without feeling judged. In this situation, the mother is experiencing intense guilt and grief, and allowing her to talk about her feelings can help her process her emotions and cope with the impending loss. By listening actively and without judgment, the nurse can demonstrate empathy and compassion, which are crucial in supporting the mother through this difficult time. Summary: B: Helping the patient to understand the phases of the grieving process may be helpful, but it is not the highest priority at this moment. C: Reassuring the patient that the child's death is not her fault is important, but the priority is to address the mother's emotional needs first. D: Arranging for genetic counseling is not the highest priority at this time as the immediate focus should be on providing emotional support to the mother
Question 2 of 9
Anti-infective prophylaxis is indicated for a pregnant patient with a history of mitral valve stenosis related to rheumatic heart disease because the patient is at risk of developing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bacterial endocarditis. Mitral valve stenosis increases the risk of bacterial endocarditis due to turbulent blood flow and potential damage to the heart valve. Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended before certain procedures to prevent bacterial endocarditis in patients with underlying cardiac conditions. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect as mitral valve stenosis does not directly increase the risk of developing hypertension. Choice B, postpartum infection, is not directly related to the risk associated with mitral valve stenosis. Choice D, upper respiratory infections, is not a specific risk associated with mitral valve stenosis in pregnant patients.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with serous otitis media for the third time in the past year. How should the nurse best interpret this patients health status?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Serous otitis media is common in children due to eustachian tube dysfunction, not usually related to systemic infections. Step 2: Recurrent infections may indicate age-related changes like decreased eustachian tube function. Step 3: Age-related physiologic changes can lead to poor drainage, causing recurrent otitis media. Step 4: Therefore, choice A is correct as it aligns with the typical presentation of serous otitis media in the context of age. Summary: Choice B is incorrect as there is no indication for temporary mobility restriction. Choice C is incorrect as serous otitis media does not typically warrant assessment for nasopharyngeal cancer. Choice D is incorrect as blood cultures are not typically indicated for serous otitis media.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is teaching about the energy needed at rest to maintain life-sustaining activities for a specific period of time. What is the nurse discussing?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Basal metabolic rate (BMR). BMR refers to the minimum amount of energy required to maintain basic physiological functions at rest. It accounts for about 60-75% of total energy expenditure. It is essential for sustaining life-sustaining activities such as breathing, circulating blood, and maintaining body temperature. Incorrect Choices: A: Resting energy expenditure (REE) is the total amount of energy expended by the body while at rest, including BMR and additional energy for daily activities. C: Nutrient density refers to the amount of nutrients per calorie in a food item, not the energy needed at rest. D: Nutrients are essential substances in food required for growth, maintenance, and repair, but they do not specifically refer to the energy needed at rest.
Question 5 of 9
An oncology patient has just returned from the postanesthesia care unit after an open hemicolectomy. This patients plan of nursing care should prioritize which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the patient's wound for dehiscence every 4 hours is crucial post hemicolectomy to monitor for any signs of wound complications, such as infection or tissue breakdown. This allows for early detection and intervention, promoting optimal wound healing and preventing potential complications. Choice A is incorrect as compartment syndrome is not a common complication after a hemicolectomy, and assessing for it hourly would be excessive and unnecessary. Choice B is incorrect as assessing fine motor skills is not a priority in the immediate postoperative period following a hemicolectomy. Choice D is incorrect as maintaining the patient's head of bed at 45 degrees or more is important for preventing respiratory complications, but it is not the top priority compared to wound assessment for dehiscence in this scenario.
Question 6 of 9
A medical nurse is providing end-of-life care for a patient with metastatic bone cancer. The nurse notes that the patient has been receiving oral analgesics for her pain with adequate effect, but is now having difficulty swallowing the medication. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Requesting the physician to order analgesics by an alternative route is the correct choice as the patient is having difficulty swallowing the medication. 2. Alternative routes could include subcutaneous, intravenous, transdermal, or rectal routes to ensure the patient receives adequate pain relief. 3. Crushing the medication (choice B) may alter the absorption rate and effectiveness of the medication. 4. Administering the medication with the meal tray (choice C) may not address the swallowing issue and could lead to inadequate pain relief. 5. Administering the medication rectally (choice D) is not ideal as it may not be the most appropriate route for analgesics in this situation.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is assessing a 28-year-old man with HIV who has been admitted with pneumonia. In assessing the patient, which of the following observations takes immediate priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachypnea and restlessness. This observation takes immediate priority as it indicates potential respiratory distress, a common complication of pneumonia in HIV patients. Tachypnea can be a sign of hypoxia, while restlessness may indicate increased work of breathing. Prompt intervention is crucial to prevent respiratory failure. Choice A: Oral temperature of 100F is not an immediate priority as it is within normal range and may not directly impact the patient's immediate condition. Choice C: Frequent loose stools may suggest gastrointestinal issues but are not as urgent as respiratory distress in this scenario. Choice D: Weight loss of 1 pound since yesterday, while relevant in monitoring the patient's condition, does not require immediate intervention compared to respiratory distress.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is working with a patient who was diagnosed with HIV several months earlier. The nurse should recognize that a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS at the point when the CD4+ T- lymphocyte cell count drops below what threshold?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (200 cells/mm3 of blood) because a patient with HIV is considered to have AIDS when their CD4+ T-lymphocyte cell count drops below 200 cells/mm3. This threshold signifies a significant decrease in the immune system's ability to fight off infections and indicates progression to AIDS. Choice A (75 cells/mm3 of blood) is incorrect because this level is extremely low and would indicate severe immunosuppression, likely leading to AIDS much earlier than anticipated. Choice C (325 cells/mm3 of blood) and D (450 cells/mm3 of blood) are also incorrect as these levels are within the normal range or slightly lower, which would not meet the criteria for a diagnosis of AIDS.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted for the treatment of AIDS. In the morning, the patient tells the nurse that he experienced night sweats and recently coughed up some blood. What is the nurses most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the patient on respiratory isolation and inform the physician. This is the most appropriate action because the patient is exhibiting symptoms that could be indicative of a potentially infectious respiratory condition, such as tuberculosis or pneumonia. Placing the patient on respiratory isolation helps prevent the spread of infection to others and protects healthcare workers. Informing the physician promptly allows for further evaluation and appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect as Kaposi's sarcoma typically presents with skin lesions rather than respiratory symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as reviewing viral load and CD4+ count would not address the immediate concern of respiratory symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as oral suctioning is not the appropriate intervention for night sweats and coughing up blood.