ATI RN
clinical skills questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
The critical care nurse is responsible for monitoring the patient receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT). In doing so, the nurse should
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B Rationale: 1. Hemofilter clotting can affect CRRT efficiency. 2. Assessing every 6 hours allows early detection and intervention. 3. Clotting can lead to treatment interruptions or complications. 4. Regular assessment ensures optimal therapy delivery. Other Choices: A: Assessing tubing warmth is not a reliable indicator of CRRT function or complications. C: Covering dialysis lines to protect from light is not a standard practice in CRRT monitoring. D: Using clean technique is not sufficient for vascular access dressing changes; aseptic technique is required for infection prevention.
Question 2 of 9
Which of the following patients is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the 83-year-old long-term care resident with type 2 diabetes and advanced Alzheimer's disease who recently developed influenza is at the highest risk for hyperosmolar hyperglycemic syndrome (HHS). This patient has multiple risk factors for HHS, including age, type 2 diabetes, advanced Alzheimer's disease, and the added stress of influenza, which can exacerbate hyperglycemia. The combination of these factors can lead to severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalances characteristic of HHS. Choice A is incorrect because although excessive exercise can lead to hypoglycemia in individuals with type 1 diabetes, it is not a risk factor for HHS. Choice B is incorrect as forgetting to take insulin can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis in type 1 diabetes, not HHS. Choice C is incorrect as starting insulin injections in a patient with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease does not automatically increase the risk
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter in place. In caring for this patient, the nurse should
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because assessing the catheter site for redness and/or swelling is essential in monitoring for signs of infection or complications. Redness and swelling can indicate infection, which requires prompt intervention. A: Applying a sterile gauze dressing is not necessary for a temporary percutaneous dialysis catheter unless specified by the healthcare provider. B: Transparent dressings are typically left in place for several days unless there is a specific reason to change them more frequently. D: Using the catheter for drawing blood samples is not recommended as it can increase the risk of infection and may interfere with the dialysis process.
Question 4 of 9
A normal glomerular filtration rate is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B (80 to 125 mL/min) because this range represents the normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR) for a healthy adult. GFR indicates the rate at which blood is filtered by the kidneys, with 125 mL/min being the average value. Values below 80 mL/min (Choice A) suggest impaired kidney function, while values above 189 mL/min (Choice D) may indicate hyperfiltration or underlying conditions. Choice C (125 to 180 mL/min) falls within the normal range, but the typical average is around 125 mL/min. Thus, choice B is the correct answer as it reflects the standard GFR range for adults.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has undergone major abdominal surgery. The nurse notices that the patient’s urine output has been less than 20 mL/hour for the past 2 hours. The patient’s blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and the pulse is 110 beats/min. Previously, the pulse was 90 beats/min with a blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg. The nurse should
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Urine output < 20 mL/hour indicates potential hypoperfusion. 2. Decreased urine output with hypotension and tachycardia suggests inadequate fluid resuscitation. 3. Administering a normal saline bolus can help improve perfusion and stabilize blood pressure. 4. Contacting the provider promptly for orders is crucial in managing this acute situation. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B. Delaying reporting to the provider risks worsening the patient's condition. C. Continuing to evaluate urine output without intervention can lead to further deterioration. D. Ignoring the urine output due to potential postrenal causes overlooks the urgent need for fluid resuscitation.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is assigned to care for a patient who presented to the emergency department with diabetic ketoacidosis. A continuous insulin intravenous infusion is started, and hourly bedside glucose monitoring is ordered. The targeted blood glucose value after the first hour of therapy is
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: a decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL compared with admitting values. In diabetic ketoacidosis, there is severe hyperglycemia which needs to be corrected gradually to prevent complications like cerebral edema. A rapid decrease in glucose levels can lead to osmotic shifts and neurological issues. The targeted decrease of 35 to 90 mg/dL is considered safe and effective in managing hyperglycemia in these patients. This range ensures a controlled reduction in blood glucose levels without causing harm. Choice A (70 to 120 mg/dL) is too broad and may lead to overly aggressive treatment. Choice B (a decrease of 25 to 50 mg/dL) is too conservative and may not adequately address the high glucose levels seen in diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D (less than 200 mg/dL) does not provide a specific target range for glucose reduction, which is essential in managing diabetic ketoacidosis effectively.
Question 7 of 9
A 100-kg patient gets hemodialysis 3 days a week. In planning the care for this patient, the nurse recommends
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a diet of 2500 to 3500 kcal per day. During hemodialysis, patients often experience increased energy expenditure due to the treatment process. Therefore, maintaining a higher caloric intake is crucial to prevent malnutrition and support the body's needs. Options B, C, and D are incorrect as limiting protein intake to less than 50 grams per day may lead to malnutrition in a patient undergoing hemodialysis, restricting potassium intake to 10 mEq per day may not be appropriate as individual needs vary, and restricting fluid intake to less than 500 mL per day can lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances in a patient undergoing hemodialysis.
Question 8 of 9
What is a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C (80 mL/hour) as it is considered a minimally acceptable urine output for a patient weighing 75 kg. Adequate urine output is crucial for kidney function and fluid balance. The general rule is to maintain a urine output of at least 0.5 mL/kg/hour, which in this case would be 37.5 mL/hour for a 75 kg patient. Option C (80 mL/hour) exceeds this minimum requirement, ensuring proper kidney perfusion and waste elimination. Options A (Less than 30 mL/hour) and D (150 mL/hour) are incorrect as they fall below or exceed the recommended urine output range, potentially indicating renal impairment or fluid overload, respectively. Option B (37 mL/hour) is close to the minimum requirement but does not provide a sufficient margin for variations in fluid status or kidney function.
Question 9 of 9
Slow continuous ultrafiltration is also known as isolated ultrafiltration and is used to
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Slow continuous ultrafiltration is a method used to remove excess plasma water in cases of volume overload, making choice A the correct answer. This process does not involve adding dialysate (choice C) or combining ultrafiltration, convection, and dialysis (choice D). While ultrafiltration does involve the removal of fluids and solutes, it is primarily achieved through ultrafiltration rather than convection (choice B).