R. R. is a 71-year-old female who presents with left lower quadrant pain that started out as cramping but has become more constant over the last day. She reports constipation over the last few days but admits that for as long as she can remember she has had variable bowel habits. Her vital signs are normal, but physical examination reveals some tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Which diagnostic test is most likely to support the leading differential diagnosis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct diagnostic test for the patient is a barium enema. This test is commonly used to evaluate the colon and rectum for conditions such as colonic obstruction, inflammatory bowel disease, or colorectal cancer. In this case, the patient's presentation of left lower quadrant pain with a history of constipation and variable bowel habits suggests a possible colonic obstruction, which can be visualized through a barium enema. A CT scan with contrast may be helpful in some cases but may not provide as clear a view of the colon as a barium enema. CBC with WBC differential is a general blood test and would not directly aid in diagnosing colonic issues. Colonoscopy, while a valuable tool for evaluating the colon, may not be suitable for this patient initially due to the acute nature of the presentation and the need to first rule out a potential obstruction.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Immune globulin. Post bone marrow transplant, immune globulin is used to decrease the risk of graft-versus-host reaction by providing passive immunity. This helps in reducing the chances of the donor's immune cells attacking the recipient's tissues. Immune globulin does not suppress the immune system like cyclosporine (B) or systemic corticosteroids (D) do, which could increase the risk of infections post-transplant. Prophylactic antibiotics (C) are used to prevent infections but do not specifically target graft-versus-host reaction.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cephalopelvic disproportion. This condition occurs when the baby's head is too large to pass through the mother's pelvis during labor. This leads to obstructed labor, causing complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal exhaustion (A) may occur as a result of prolonged labor but is not the primary cause of obstructed labor. Microsomic fetus (C) refers to a small baby and would not typically cause obstructed labor. Fetal exsanguination (D) is the loss of blood from the fetus and is not a common cause of obstructed labor. Cephalopelvic disproportion is the most common reason for obstructed labor as it directly affects the passage of the baby through the birth canal.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for choice A: Calcium channel antagonists are the treatment of choice for achalasia as they help relax the lower esophageal sphincter, improving swallowing. This is a non-invasive option that can provide symptom relief for many patients. Summary for other choices: B: Intrasphincter botulinum injection is a temporary solution and not considered the treatment of choice. C: Pneumatic dilation is another option for achalasia but is typically used if calcium channel antagonists are ineffective. D: Myotomy and partial fundoplication is a more invasive surgical option and usually considered if other treatments fail.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Local anesthesia, cleansing, and suture repair. 1. Local anesthesia is needed to numb the area before suturing. 2. Cleansing is necessary to prevent infection and remove debris. 3. Suture repair is required for a jagged laceration to promote proper wound healing and minimize scarring. Other choices are incorrect: A: Antibiotic therapy is not indicated for clean, non-infected wounds like this laceration. B: Wound exploration for foreign bodies is not necessary in this case as the mechanism of injury is known and there is no indication of foreign bodies. D: Tetanus prophylaxis is important but not directly related to the immediate management of the laceration.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep transverse arrest occurs when the level of the occiput and the sinciput is the same, leading to a failure of descent of the fetal head through the pelvis. This alignment issue hinders the progress of labor despite adequate contractions. A: Incorrect. Flexion being well maintained is not a defining characteristic of deep transverse arrest. B: Incorrect. While strong uterine contractions can contribute to labor challenges, deep transverse arrest is specifically related to the alignment of the fetal head. C: Incorrect. The curvature of the sacrum is not directly related to deep transverse arrest.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Tympany. Tenderness to percussion is analogous to tympany as both indicate the presence of gas-filled structures. When a patient experiences tenderness to percussion in the abdomen, it suggests that there is gas or air present in the abdomen, leading to a hollow, drum-like sound upon percussion, which is characteristic of tympany. Guarding (B) is the involuntary contraction of abdominal muscles to protect the underlying organs, not related to percussion. Rebound tenderness (C) is the pain experienced when pressure is released during palpation, not percussion. Somatic pain (D) refers to pain originating from the skin, muscles, or bones, not related to percussion findings.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice for managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant and smooth muscle relaxant, helping to prevent further seizures. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (C) is used to counteract calcium channel blocker toxicity, not for eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to treat metabolic acidosis, not eclampsia.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because additional nursing interventions are necessary to ensure an uncomplicated postpartum period. After an assisted vaginal delivery, the mother may experience increased pain, perineal trauma, and a higher risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Nursing interventions such as pain management, wound care, monitoring for signs of infection, and emotional support are crucial for the mother's recovery. A is incorrect because both vacuum extractors and forceps can cause trauma to the baby and mother's perineum, and the safety of one over the other depends on various factors. B is incorrect as the development of a cephalhematoma is not a normal expected outcome of assisted vaginal delivery and should be monitored and managed appropriately if it occurs. C is incorrect as the use of instruments during childbirth, while not as common as spontaneous vaginal deliveries, is not rare and can be necessary in certain situations to ensure the safety of the mother and baby.