ATI RN
Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Physiologically, what happens to the brain as Alzheimer progresses?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cells die. In Alzheimer's disease, there is a progressive degeneration of brain cells, leading to cell death. This results in a loss of important brain functions such as memory, cognition, and eventually, bodily functions. The atrophy of the brain stem (choice A) is not a characteristic feature of Alzheimer's. Fluid buildup (choice B) is not a primary mechanism of the disease. Tissue swelling (choice D) is not typically associated with the progression of Alzheimer's; rather, there is a gradual loss of brain tissue due to cell death.
Question 2 of 9
Before admitting the client, you should FIRST make sure that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because obtaining the client's own consent is the first step in ensuring the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their own care. This is in line with ethical principles of informed consent. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because consent should come directly from the client, not from a spouse, family member, or social worker. Choice B violates the principle of individual autonomy, choice C is not the priority before admission, and choice D is not the appropriate person to provide consent.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is preparing to assist with a lumbar epidural steroid injection (LESI) procedure for a patient with chronic back pain. What action should the nurse prioritize to ensure procedural accuracy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Confirming the patient's identity ensures the right patient is receiving the intended procedure. 2. Verifying the procedure site using two identifiers prevents errors in site selection. 3. This step aligns with the World Health Organization's Surgical Safety Checklist, reducing the risk of wrong-site procedures. 4. Positioning, sedation, and local anesthesia are important but secondary to ensuring the correct patient and site. Summary: - Option B: Positioning is essential but not the top priority for procedural accuracy. - Option C: Sedation aims to minimize discomfort but does not guarantee procedural accuracy. - Option D: Administering local anesthesia is crucial but not as critical as confirming patient identity and procedure site.
Question 4 of 9
In her recommendation, Nurse Gina stated, elderly should be given independence. This means ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because independence for the elderly means they have the freedom to make choices and decisions about their own lives. This empowers them to live according to their preferences and values. Choice A is incorrect because it doesn't consider individual circumstances; choice B is important but doesn't capture the essence of independence; choice D is too broad and doesn't specifically address the concept of personal autonomy and agency for the elderly.
Question 5 of 9
During surgery, the nurse observes a sudden change in the patient's level of consciousness. What is the nurse's immediate action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct immediate action for the nurse is to notify the anesthesia provider immediately (Option D). This is crucial because a sudden change in the patient's level of consciousness during surgery could indicate a serious issue related to anesthesia administration. Notifying the anesthesia provider promptly allows for quick assessment and intervention to address the underlying cause, potentially preventing complications or even saving the patient's life. Administering a reversal agent (Option A) without proper evaluation by the anesthesia provider could be dangerous. Documenting the change in the patient's chart (Option B) is important but not the most immediate action. Checking the patient's vital signs (Option C) is also important but may not provide immediate insight into the cause of the change in consciousness.
Question 6 of 9
Nurse Victor reviews the medical history of patient Mila. Which of the following conditions is the MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of multiple myeloma demonstrates hypogammaglobulinemia. Which of the following immunoglobulin classes is most likely to be deficient in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgA. In multiple myeloma, there is a proliferation of abnormal plasma cells, leading to a decrease in normal antibody production. IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin in mucosal secretions and plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity. Therefore, a deficiency in IgA is common in patients with multiple myeloma. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and is typically less affected in multiple myeloma. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is less likely to be deficient in this case. IgE is primarily involved in allergic responses and is not typically affected in multiple myeloma.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is aware that which occurrence in the patient 's health history suggests the diagnosis of GBS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because a viral illness few weeks before can trigger Guillain-Barre Syndrome (GBS) due to the body's immune response attacking the peripheral nerves. Encephalitis (B), severe bacterial infection (C), and meningitis (D) are not directly linked to GBS pathophysiology. Viral infections are known to precede GBS development, making choice A the most appropriate option.
Question 9 of 9
In providing tracheostomy care which of the following is the nurse's PRIORITY nursing action? The nurse ________.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Secures clean ties before removing soiled ones. This is the priority action because securing clean ties prevents accidental dislodgement of the tracheostomy tube, ensuring the patient's airway remains patent. Cutting the dressing (A) or cleaning the incisions (B) can be important but not as critical as securing the tube. Using clean technique (D) is essential but not the priority in this situation.