Physiologically, what happens to the brain as Alzheimer progresses?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cells die. In Alzheimer's disease, there is a progressive degeneration of brain cells, leading to cell death. This results in a loss of important brain functions such as memory, cognition, and eventually, bodily functions. The atrophy of the brain stem (choice A) is not a characteristic feature of Alzheimer's. Fluid buildup (choice B) is not a primary mechanism of the disease. Tissue swelling (choice D) is not typically associated with the progression of Alzheimer's; rather, there is a gradual loss of brain tissue due to cell death.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Atropine. Atropine is a mydriatic agent that can exacerbate acute angle closure glaucoma by dilating the pupil and potentially worsening the condition. The nurse should discuss with the attending physician before administering it to avoid worsening the patient's condition. A: Isopto carpine eye drops are actually used in the treatment of acute angle closure glaucoma as they help in lowering intraocular pressure, so there is no need to discuss this with the physician. B: Mannitol is used as an osmotic diuretic to reduce intraocular pressure in acute angle closure glaucoma, and it does not directly affect the pupil, so it does not require discussion with the physician before administration. C: Corticosporin ophthalmic is a combination of an antibiotic and a corticosteroid used to treat eye infections and inflammation, but it does not have a direct effect on worsening acute angle closure glaucoma, so it does

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. During an MI, there is significant damage to the heart muscle, leading to a decrease in cardiac output and subsequent shock. This results in inadequate tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because decreased hemoglobin level (A) may lead to anemia but is not the most common cause of cardiogenic shock. Hypotension (C) is a symptom of shock, not the cause. Coronary artery disease (D) is a risk factor for MI but not the direct cause of cardiogenic shock.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the licensure examination aims to assess if candidates meet the expected competency standards to practice nursing safely and effectively. This process ensures that only qualified individuals enter the profession, maintaining high standards of care. Choice A is incorrect because the exam goes beyond applying theory to include practical skills. Choice B is incorrect as protecting the public is the outcome of ensuring competency. Choice C is incorrect as the exam evaluates the full scope of nursing practice, not just its application.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: IgA. In multiple myeloma, there is a proliferation of abnormal plasma cells, leading to a decrease in normal antibody production. IgA is the most abundant immunoglobulin in mucosal secretions and plays a crucial role in mucosal immunity. Therefore, a deficiency in IgA is common in patients with multiple myeloma. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in the blood and is typically less affected in multiple myeloma. IgM is the first antibody produced in response to an infection and is less likely to be deficient in this case. IgE is primarily involved in allergic responses and is not typically affected in multiple myeloma.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Meningitis. The patient's symptoms of severe headache, photophobia, neck stiffness, nuchal rigidity, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs are classic signs of meningitis. Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord, leading to these specific neurological symptoms. Migraine headache (A) typically presents with a throbbing headache, nausea, and sensitivity to light and sound, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Cluster headache (B) is characterized by severe unilateral headache with autonomic symptoms like tearing or nasal congestion, but does not typically cause neck stiffness or positive meningeal signs. Subarachnoid hemorrhage (D) presents with sudden severe headache often described as "the worst headache of my life," and may cause neck stiffness, but typically does not present with photophobia or positive meningeal signs like Kernig and Brudzinski signs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To provide a patent airway. When caring for a patient with a tracheostomy, ensuring a clear and unobstructed airway is the top priority to maintain adequate oxygenation and ventilation. This involves suctioning, maintaining proper tube placement, and monitoring for any signs of respiratory distress. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not address the immediate need for airway management, which is crucial for the patient's safety and well-being.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weakened bones, making individuals more susceptible to fractures, especially with minor trauma or falls. In the context of a patient prone to fractures, nurses should be particularly cautious about fall prevention. A: The aging process alone does not necessarily lead to an increased risk of fractures. While aging is a risk factor for osteoporosis, it is not the direct cause of fractures in this case. C: Changes in vision can contribute to an increased risk of falls, but it is not the primary reason for the patient being prone to fractures in this scenario. D: Hematologic conditions may affect bone health, but they are not typically the primary cause of increased fracture risk in patients.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Initiate non-invasive positive pressure ventilation (NIPPV) for respiratory support. In acute exacerbations of COPD, NIPPV helps improve ventilation and oxygenation, reducing the work of breathing and preventing the need for intubation. This intervention is a priority as it can rapidly stabilize the patient's respiratory status. A: Administering bronchodilator medications is important in COPD management, but in severe exacerbations, NIPPV takes precedence. C: Arterial blood gas analysis is important for assessing oxygenation and ventilation status, but it does not directly address the acute respiratory distress. D: Chest physiotherapy can help with airway clearance in COPD, but in acute exacerbations, respiratory support with NIPPV is more urgent.