ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 4 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Performing and supervising therapeutic and preventive procedures that have been planned for a patient is part of which of the following steps for determining and fulfilling the nursing care needs of the patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Implementation. In nursing care, implementation involves carrying out and supervising the planned procedures for the patient. This step focuses on putting the care plan into action. Choice A, Evaluation, involves assessing the effectiveness of the care provided, not performing procedures. Choice B, Planning, is about developing a plan of care, not executing it. Choice D, Assessment, is the initial step in the nursing process where data is collected and analyzed to determine the patient's needs, not the step involving performing and supervising procedures.
Question 2 of 9
The client with peripheral vascular disease is being taught by the nurse. Which interventions should the nurse discuss with the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions for a client with peripheral vascular disease include keeping the area between the toes dry and wearing comfortable, well-fitting shoes. Choice A is correct as moisture between the toes can lead to skin breakdown and infection. Choice B is also correct as proper footwear helps prevent injury and promotes circulation. Choice C, cutting toenails straight across, is incorrect for peripheral vascular disease clients as cutting them in an arch can reduce the risk of ingrown toenails, which is important for clients with diabetes to prevent complications. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate interventions for the client with peripheral vascular disease.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse administers albuterol to a child with asthma. For what common side effect should the nurse monitor the child?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Tachycardia. Albuterol, a bronchodilator used to treat asthma, commonly causes tachycardia as a side effect. Flushing (choice A) is not a typical side effect of albuterol. Dyspnea (choice B) refers to difficulty breathing, which is a symptom of asthma but not a common side effect of albuterol. Hypotension (choice D) is low blood pressure, which is not a common side effect associated with albuterol use.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following is a common side effect of the drug metformin?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, weight loss. Metformin is commonly associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. Metformin works by decreasing glucose production in the liver and improving insulin sensitivity, which can lead to weight loss in some individuals. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Weight gain is not a typical side effect of metformin. Drowsiness and hypertension are also not commonly associated with metformin use.
Question 5 of 9
Which risk factor would the nurse expect to find in the client diagnosed with pancreatic cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chronic alcoholism. Chronic alcoholism is a significant risk factor for pancreatic cancer as alcohol has a damaging effect on the pancreas. Chewing tobacco (choice A) is associated with oral and throat cancers, not specifically pancreatic cancer. A low-fat diet (choice B) is generally considered a healthier choice and not a direct risk factor for pancreatic cancer. Exposure to industrial chemicals (choice D) may be linked to other types of cancers but is not a major risk factor for pancreatic cancer.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse cares for a client receiving furosemide (Lasix). The nurse determines that teaching is effective if the client selects which of the following foods?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: One medium baked potato. Potatoes are high in potassium, which is crucial for clients on furosemide (Lasix) to prevent hypokalemia, as furosemide can cause potassium loss. White bread (choice B) and scrambled egg (choice D) are not high-potassium foods and do not address the specific need related to furosemide therapy. While apples (choice C) contain some potassium, they are not as rich in potassium as a baked potato, making them a less optimal choice for a client on furosemide.
Question 7 of 9
A patient with a history of gout should avoid which type of food?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red meat. Red meat is high in purines, which can exacerbate gout attacks. Gout is a form of arthritis that occurs when high levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation of urate crystals in the joints. Purine-rich foods can increase uric acid levels, leading to gout symptoms. Chicken and fish are lower in purines compared to red meat, making them better choices for individuals with gout. Dairy products are generally considered safe for gout patients and may even have a protective effect against gout.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following statements about medications is true?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement is true because both prescription medications and over-the-counter medications, along with herbal remedies, can interact with food. Choice A is incorrect because over-the-counter medications can also interact with food or nutrients. Choice B is incorrect as not all prescription medications have significant interactions with food. Choice D is misleading because herbal products are not always safe, as they can have side effects and interact with other medications.
Question 9 of 9
How long is the Practical Nurse Course training program conducted in phases for?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 52 weeks. The Practical Nurse Course is conducted over a period of 52 weeks. This duration allows for a comprehensive training program that covers all necessary aspects of practical nursing. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the specific length of time associated with the Practical Nurse Course.