ATI RN
Midwifery Exam Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Incidental antepartum haemorrhage is also referred to as
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Extraplacental haemorrhage. Incidental antepartum haemorrhage refers to bleeding occurring outside the placenta, such as from the cervix or vaginal walls, before the onset of labor. This is not associated with the placenta itself (intraplacental - choice A). Similarly, it does not occur during labor (intrapartum - choice B) or specifically before term (preterm - choice D). Extraplacental haemorrhage captures the essence of bleeding unrelated to the placenta during the antepartum period.
Question 2 of 9
TB in pregnancy predisposes a mother to premature labour due to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. TB in pregnancy can lead to premature labor due to the fever experienced. Fever increases the risk of premature labor by triggering uterine contractions. Poor maternal appetite (A) and severe anemia (B) may impact the mother's health but are not directly linked to premature labor. Adverse reactions of anti-TB drugs (C) could potentially affect the mother's health but are not a direct cause of premature labor.
Question 3 of 9
The main feature in the initial stage of shock is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tachycardia. In the initial stage of shock, the body tries to compensate for decreased perfusion by increasing heart rate to maintain blood flow to vital organs. Cyanosis (A) is a late sign of shock due to inadequate oxygenation. Sweat beads (C) are a non-specific response and not a defining feature of shock. Hypotension (D) typically occurs in the later stages of shock as the body's compensatory mechanisms start to fail. Tachycardia is the earliest and most consistent sign of shock, reflecting the body's attempt to maintain cardiac output.
Question 4 of 9
The Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for all of the following patients except those with
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the Brain Trauma Foundation recommends intracranial pressure monitoring for patients with traumatic brain injury and a GCS of 3 to 8, regardless of the head CT findings. Intracranial pressure monitoring helps in the management of elevated intracranial pressure, which can be life-threatening. Abnormal head CT findings may indicate the need for immediate intervention, but intracranial pressure monitoring is still recommended for all patients in this GCS range to guide treatment decisions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, age > 40 years old, and bradycardia are not factors that would exclude a patient from needing intracranial pressure monitoring in the presence of a GCS of 3 to 8.
Question 5 of 9
The drug of choice in the management of eclampsia is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Magnesium sulphate. It is the drug of choice for managing eclampsia due to its ability to prevent and control seizures. Magnesium sulfate acts as a central nervous system depressant and smooth muscle relaxant, helping to prevent further seizures. Phenobarbitone (A) is not the first-line treatment for eclampsia. Calcium gluconate (C) is used to counteract calcium channel blocker toxicity, not for eclampsia. Sodium bicarbonate (D) is used to treat metabolic acidosis, not eclampsia.
Question 6 of 9
In breech delivery, the midwife is advised to keep her hands off the breech as it progressively descends so as to
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prevent excessive traction being applied. This is because in a breech delivery, excessive traction can lead to complications such as fetal injuries or umbilical cord prolapse. The midwife should avoid pulling on the baby's legs or body to prevent undue stress on the baby. The other choices are incorrect because: A: Ascertain the fetal wellbeing in utero - this is typically done through other means such as fetal monitoring. B: Allow enough room for the fetus to pass - this should be done by ensuring proper positioning and allowing natural descent. C: Allow gravitating descent of the fetus - this is not a recommended practice as it can cause complications.
Question 7 of 9
Deep transverse arrest is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because deep transverse arrest refers to a situation where the fetal head fails to rotate and descend in the pelvis due to the occiput and sinciput being at the same level. This leads to a prolonged labor. Choice A is incorrect because flexion can be inadequate in deep transverse arrest. Choice B is incorrect because it is not solely caused by uterine contractions but rather fetal malposition. Choice C is incorrect because a well-curved sacrum is not a defining factor in deep transverse arrest.
Question 8 of 9
Causes of puerperal pyrexia are entirely obstetrically related.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Step 1: Puerperal pyrexia refers to fever occurring after childbirth. Step 2: Causes can be obstetric (infection) or non-obstetric (e.g., urinary tract infection). Step 3: Non-obstetric causes are also common postpartum. Step 4: Therefore, puerperal pyrexia is not entirely obstetrically related. Step 5: Hence, the correct answer is B (FALSE).
Question 9 of 9
During induction of labor with syntocinon, drops increase is stopped prematurely on
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choice C: 1. Progressive cervical dilatation indicates effective labor progress. 2. Stopping the syntocinon drops prematurely allows natural labor progression. 3. Prematurely stopping drops before reaching full dilation may hinder labor. 4. Achieving cervical dilatation is a crucial indicator for successful labor. Summary: A: Contractions should be strong, not just moderate. B: Maternal observations alone do not determine labor progress. D: Fetal-related observations are important but not the primary indicator for stopping drops.