Questions 9

ATI RN

ATI RN Test Bank

Pharmacology and the Nursing Process 9th Edition Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

In an individual with Sjogren’s syndrome, nursing care should focus on:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Moisture replacement. Sjogren's syndrome is an autoimmune disorder that primarily affects the moisture-producing glands, leading to dryness in the eyes, mouth, and other mucous membranes. Nursing care should focus on managing these symptoms by providing moisture replacement through artificial tears, lubricating eye drops, and hydrating mouthwashes. This helps prevent complications such as corneal damage and dental issues. Nutritional supplementation (B) may be needed if there are difficulties in eating due to dry mouth, but it is not the primary focus. Electrolyte balance (C) and arrhythmia management (D) are not directly related to the symptoms of Sjogren's syndrome and are therefore not the main priorities in nursing care for this condition.

Question 2 of 5

A 36-year-old man is scheduled for a unilateral orchiectomy for treatment of testicular cancer. He is withdrawn and does not interact with the nurse. Which action is most appropriate?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choosing answer D as correct: 1. Acknowledges patient's withdrawn behavior 2. Demonstrates empathy and concern 3. Open-ended question allows patient to express feelings 4. Encourages patient to communicate concerns Summary: - Option A assumes a specific problem without patient input - Option B focuses on verbalization, not necessarily addressing underlying concerns - Option C makes assumptions about patient's worries without allowing him to express himself

Question 3 of 5

Which of the following is a discharge criterion from the PACU for a patient following surgery?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxygen saturation above 90%. This is a discharge criterion because adequate oxygen saturation indicates the patient is breathing well and there is no immediate respiratory compromise. Oxygen saturation below 90% (choice C) would indicate hypoxemia and would not be safe for discharge. IV narcotics given less than 15 minutes ago (choice B) can still be in effect and may impair the patient's ability to function post-surgery. IV narcotics given less than 30 minutes ago (choice D) is a longer timeframe but still not ideal for discharge as the effects of the narcotics may not have fully worn off.

Question 4 of 5

Which of the following outcomes would indicate successful treatment of diabetes insipidus?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fluid intake of less than 2,500mL. In diabetes insipidus, the body cannot properly regulate fluid balance, leading to excessive thirst and urination. Successful treatment aims to manage these symptoms by reducing fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Therefore, a decrease in fluid intake indicates successful treatment. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Blood pressure of 90/50mmHg - Blood pressure is not directly related to the treatment of diabetes insipidus. C: Pulse rate of 126 beats/min - Pulse rate is not a specific indicator of successful treatment for diabetes insipidus. D: Urine output of more than 200mL/hour - In diabetes insipidus, excessive urine output is a symptom of the condition, so an increase in urine output does not indicate successful treatment.

Question 5 of 5

The most effective pharmacologic agent for the treatment of Parkinson’s disease is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Levodopa. Levodopa is the most effective pharmacologic agent for Parkinson's disease as it is converted to dopamine in the brain, replenishing dopamine levels which are depleted in Parkinson's. Selegiline and Symmetrel provide symptomatic relief but are not as effective as Levodopa. Permax is not commonly used due to its association with serious side effects like heart valve damage.

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