ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Falls are one of the leader environmental hazards reported in health facilities. One of the MOST common occurrences that precipitate a patient fall is
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Leaving the side rails down is one of the most common occurrences that can lead to a patient fall. Side rails are important safety measures designed to prevent patients from falling out of bed. When the side rails are left down, the patient is at a higher risk of accidentally rolling out of bed and falling. It is crucial for healthcare providers to always ensure that the side rails are up and secure to help prevent patient falls.
Question 2 of 9
A patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision. Tonometry reveals elevated intraocular pressure (IOP). Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient presents with gradual, painless visual field loss in both eyes, particularly in the peripheral vision, which is characteristic of glaucoma. The elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) on tonometry further supports a diagnosis of glaucoma. Open-angle glaucoma is the most common type of glaucoma and typically presents insidiously with a slow progression of vision loss. In open-angle glaucoma, the drainage angle of the eye remains open but becomes less efficient over time, leading to increased intraocular pressure and optic nerve damage. This results in peripheral visual field loss. Closed-angle glaucoma, on the other hand, presents more acutely with sudden eye pain, redness, and blurred vision due to a sudden increase in intraocular pressure from a blocked drainage angle. Age-related macular degeneration and diabetic retinopathy typically do not present with elevated IOP or peripheral visual field loss.
Question 3 of 9
Which communication technique should Nurse Cris employ in order to successfully capture the details of the meeting?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nurse Cris should employ the communication technique of summarizing to successfully capture the details of the meeting. Summarizing involves condensing the information provided into a concise and organized form, which would help Nurse Cris remember and retain the key points discussed during the meeting. By summarizing the details, Nurse Cris can ensure that no important information is missed and can also confirm understanding by reflecting back the main points discussed. This technique promotes effective communication by enhancing clarity and reinforcing comprehension.
Question 4 of 9
Whose responsibility is it to obtain informed consent?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining informed consent is primarily the responsibility of the physician. Informed consent is a crucial ethical and legal concept in healthcare that requires the healthcare provider, usually the physician, to ensure that the patient understands the proposed treatment, including the risks, benefits, alternatives, and potential outcomes, before agreeing to proceed with the treatment. While other healthcare professionals, such as nurses, nurse managers, anesthesiologists, and midwives, may also play a role in the informed consent process by providing information and clarifying details, it is ultimately the physician who must obtain the patient's informed consent before any treatment or procedure is performed.
Question 5 of 9
Which procedure has to be done to the patient to establish a definitive diagnosis of lung cancer?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Bronchoscopy is a procedure that allows direct visualization of the inside of the airways in the lungs. It is considered the most definitive method to establish a diagnosis of lung cancer as it can directly visualize any abnormal growths or tumors in the bronchial tubes. During bronchoscopy, tissue samples can be collected for biopsy to confirm the presence of cancer cells. This procedure is more accurate compared to other diagnostic methods such as chest x-ray, CT scan, cytological study of sputum, or magnetic resonance imaging in confirming a diagnosis of lung cancer.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following procedures would be MOST helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Monitoring cardiac enzymes would be most helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock. Cardiac enzymes are specific markers in the blood that indicate damage to the heart muscle, such as troponin and creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB). When a patient experiences cardiogenic shock, there is usually damage to the heart muscle which leads to the release of these enzymes into the bloodstream. Monitoring cardiac enzymes can help confirm if the cause of cardiogenic shock is related to myocardial infarction or another cardiac issue. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for the patient. Monitoring pulmonary artery pressure, mean arterial pressure, and central venous pressure may provide important hemodynamic information but may not directly confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock.
Question 7 of 9
Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reaction is promptly managed with ____.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Type I IgE-mediated immediate hypersensitivity reactions, such as anaphylaxis, are promptly managed with epinephrine. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps counteract the severe symptoms by relaxing the muscles in the airways, constricting blood vessels, and decreasing swelling. It acts quickly to reverse the potentially life-threatening effects of the allergic reaction and is crucial in managing anaphylaxis effectively. Other medications like antihistamines (e.g., diphenhydramine) and corticosteroids may be used as adjuncts, but epinephrine remains the primary treatment for immediate hypersensitivity reactions.
Question 8 of 9
A 35-year-old woman presents with irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism, and acne. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with these symptoms?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a common hormonal disorder in women of reproductive age. The classic symptoms of PCOS include irregular menstrual cycles, hirsutism (excess hair growth in a male pattern), and acne. Women with PCOS often have enlarged ovaries with multiple small cysts. Other common features include obesity, insulin resistance, and infertility. Endometriosis is characterized by the presence and growth of endometrial-like tissue outside the uterus, leading to symptoms such as pelvic pain and infertility. Ovarian cancer usually presents with nonspecific symptoms and is less likely in a young woman with these specific symptoms. Uterine fibroids are benign tumors that can cause heavy menstrual bleeding and pelvic pressure but are less likely to be associated with hirsutism and acne.
Question 9 of 9
Nurse Rosa is able to know the patterns of occurrence and distribution of diseases in the community . Per record she found out there had been cases of rabies at irregular intervals scattered in particular places. This occurrence rates to ______.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The occurrence of rabies at irregular intervals scattered in particular places indicates a sporadic pattern. Sporadic diseases are those that occur infrequently and irregularly in a population. These diseases do not have a consistent pattern of occurrence and are not confined to a specific geographic area or population group. In this case, the cases of rabies being reported at irregular intervals and scattered in particular places suggest a sporadic distribution rather than an endemic (constantly present in a population), epidemic (sudden increase in cases in a specific population), or pandemic (global spread of a disease) pattern.