Compartment syndrome is a potential complication of elbow fractures that decreases circulation to local neuromuscular structures. The nurse monitors circulation on a casted elbow because irreversible damage can develop if compartment syndrome lasts for more than:

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 24 hours. Compartment syndrome occurs when pressure within a closed muscle compartment increases, leading to decreased circulation and potential tissue damage. Monitoring is crucial as irreversible damage can occur if left untreated. The 6 Ps (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure) are key indicators. Waiting for 48 hours (choice A) or 12 hours (choice C) is too long and can result in severe consequences. 2 hours (choice B) is too short a timeframe to assess for irreversible damage development, making 24 hours (choice D) the most appropriate timeframe for monitoring and intervention.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Puffiness at the site. This indicates infiltration of the infusion, where the medication or fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue instead of entering the bloodstream. Puffiness is a sign of fluid accumulation due to the infiltration. Redness at the site (A) may indicate infection, pain (B) can be due to various reasons, and exudate (D) may suggest infection or irritation, but they are not specific to infiltration. Infiltration assessment involves checking for swelling, coolness, and blanching around the infusion site.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Papillary carcinoma. This is the most common form of thyroid cancer in adults, accounting for about 80% of cases. It is typically slow-growing and has a good prognosis. Papillary carcinoma arises from the follicular cells of the thyroid gland. Follicular carcinoma (choice A) is less common than papillary carcinoma and arises from the follicular cells as well. Anaplastic carcinoma (choice B) is a highly aggressive and rare form of thyroid cancer. Medullary carcinoma (choice C) originates from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid gland and is not as common as papillary carcinoma. Therefore, the most appropriate choice is D, papillary carcinoma, due to its high prevalence and relatively favorable prognosis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suppressor T cells. Suppressor T cells regulate the immune response by inhibiting the activity of other immune cells to prevent overreaction and maintain immune balance. They play a crucial role in preventing autoimmune diseases and excessive inflammation. Plasma cells (A) produce antibodies, Helper T cells (C) assist in activating other immune cells, and B lymphocytes (D) are involved in antibody production. Suppressor T cells specifically have the function of shutting down immune responses, making them the immune system’s shutoff mechanism.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because it is essential for the nurse to ensure accurate and up-to-date vital signs before administering medications. By asking the NAP to record the patient's vital signs, the nurse can make informed decisions about the patient's condition and prevent any potential complications. Choice A is incorrect because administering medications without knowing the patient's vital signs, particularly if they are abnormal, can be dangerous. Choice B is not the best course of action as it delays the crucial step of obtaining the vital signs. Choice D is incorrect as omitting vital signs without assessment could compromise patient safety. Therefore, choice C is the most appropriate response to ensure patient well-being and medication safety.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, the 35-year-old with kidney failure. Patients with kidney failure are at high risk for fluid volume overload due to the kidneys' inability to properly regulate fluid balance. This can lead to accumulation of excess fluids in the body, causing edema, hypertension, and heart failure. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are not at as high risk for fluid volume overload as patients with kidney failure, as their conditions do not directly impact fluid regulation in the body.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cancerous lumps. Breast self-examination aims to detect any abnormal changes in the breasts, including potential cancerous lumps. Detecting cancerous lumps early increases the chances of successful treatment and improved outcomes. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while changes from previous self-examinations, areas of thickness or fullness, and fibrocystic masses can be important to note, the primary goal of breast self-examination is to identify any signs of breast cancer, such as cancerous lumps.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Presence of flatus. This indicates normal gastrointestinal function post-bowel resection. Flatus production signifies peristalsis and passage of gas through the intestines, indicating that the bowels are working. A, firm abdomen, may indicate distention or ileus, not normal function. C, excessive thirst, is unrelated to bowel function. D, absent bowel sounds, may indicate ileus or bowel obstruction, not normal function.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Step 1: Define nonmodifiable risk factors - these are factors that cannot be changed or controlled by the individual. Step 2: Advanced age is a nonmodifiable risk factor as it is determined by genetics and time. Step 3: Poor control of blood glucose levels, foot trauma, and inappropriate foot care are modifiable risk factors that can be managed through lifestyle changes or medical interventions. Summary: Choice D is correct because advanced age is a nonmodifiable risk factor for diabetes mellitus, while the other choices involve factors that can be modified through appropriate actions.