ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Compartment syndrome is a potential complication of elbow fractures that decreases circulation to local neuromuscular structures. The nurse monitors circulation on a casted elbow because irreversible damage can develop if compartment syndrome lasts for more than:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 24 hours. Compartment syndrome occurs when pressure within a closed muscle compartment increases, leading to decreased circulation and potential tissue damage. Monitoring is crucial as irreversible damage can occur if left untreated. The 6 Ps (pain, pallor, pulselessness, paresthesia, paralysis, pressure) are key indicators. Waiting for 48 hours (choice A) or 12 hours (choice C) is too long and can result in severe consequences. 2 hours (choice B) is too short a timeframe to assess for irreversible damage development, making 24 hours (choice D) the most appropriate timeframe for monitoring and intervention.
Question 2 of 5
A 61-year old female patient with diabetes is in the emergency department after stepping on a sharp onject while walking barefoot on the beach. The patient did not notice that the object pierced the skin unitl later that evening. What problem does she probably have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: neuropathy on her peripheral. In diabetes, peripheral neuropathy is common, causing loss of sensation in the feet, making it difficult to feel injuries like stepping on a sharp object. This can lead to delayed detection of wounds, increasing the risk of infections and complications. Nephropathy (B) refers to kidney damage, carpal tunnel syndrome (C) involves compression of the median nerve in the wrist, and macroangiopathy (D) refers to large blood vessel disease, which are not directly related to the scenario described.
Question 3 of 5
Marichu is admitted to the hospital because of hepatic failure and was prescribed with lactulose (Duphalac). The primary action of this drug is:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: decrease resident intestinal flora. Lactulose is a synthetic sugar that is not absorbed in the intestine and is used to decrease ammonia levels in patients with hepatic encephalopathy by promoting the growth of beneficial gut bacteria that help metabolize ammonia. This action helps reduce the toxic effects of ammonia on the brain. A: prevent constipation - Lactulose may help with constipation, but its primary action in this scenario is to decrease resident intestinal flora. C: increase intestinal peristalsis - Lactulose does not directly increase peristalsis. D: prevent portal hypertension - Lactulose does not have a direct effect on preventing portal hypertension.
Question 4 of 5
A 45-year old female diabetic is displaying signs of irritability and irrational behavior during an office visit. The nurse observes visible tremors in the client’s hands. based on the client’s history and the nurse’s understanding of diabetes mellitus, the nurse interprets these findings to be signs of:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: hypoglycemia. In a diabetic patient, signs of irritability, irrational behavior, and visible tremors in the hands indicate low blood sugar levels, which is hypoglycemia. This is because the brain relies on glucose for energy, and when blood sugar levels drop too low, it can lead to neuroglycopenic symptoms such as confusion and tremors. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: hyperglycemia - High blood sugar levels typically present with symptoms such as frequent urination, increased thirst, and fatigue, not irritability and tremors. B: hyperglycemic hyperosmolar - This condition is characterized by extremely high blood sugar levels and severe dehydration, leading to symptoms such as extreme thirst and confusion, not irritability and tremors. C: diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) nonketosis (HHNK) - These conditions are associated with high blood sugar levels and metabolic disturbances,
Question 5 of 5
A client who was diagnosed with type I diabetes mellitus 14 years ago is admitted to the medical-surgical unit with abdominal pain. On admission, the client’s blood glucose level is 470 mg/dl. Which finding is most likely to accompany this blood glucose level?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Arm and leg trembling. With a blood glucose level of 470 mg/dl in a client with type I diabetes mellitus, the most likely finding is arm and leg trembling, which is a common symptom of hypoglycemia. This occurs due to the body's response to low blood sugar levels, causing tremors as a compensatory mechanism to increase glucose utilization. The other choices are incorrect because cool, moist skin is a sign of hypoglycemia, rapid thready pulse is a sign of shock or hypovolemia, and slow shallow respirations are not typically associated with high blood glucose levels in this scenario.