A patient with a wound infection had Gram-positive cocci in clusters isolated from a wound culture. The organism was catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. What is the likely causative agent?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: 1. Gram-positive cocci in clusters suggest Staphylococcus species. 2. Catalase-positive and coagulase-positive characteristics match with Staphylococcus aureus. 3. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of wound infections due to its virulence factors. 4. Other choices are incorrect: B) S. epidermidis is coagulase-negative and a common contaminant, C) S. pyogenes is catalase-negative, D) Enterococcus faecalis is not typically associated with wound infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Listeria monocytogenes. This pathogen can cross the placenta and infect the fetus, leading to serious complications. Listeria can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, or severe neonatal infections. Staphylococcus aureus and Corynebacterium diphtheriae do not typically cross the placenta. Choice D is incorrect because Listeria monocytogenes can indeed be transmitted through the placenta, unlike the other pathogens listed.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Shagreen leather. Yersinia pestis, the bacterium causing plague, forms colonies resembling shagreen leather on a hard nutrient medium due to its distinctive morphology. This morphology includes a rough, irregular, and raised appearance, similar to the texture of shagreen leather. A: Dewdrops - Incorrect. Dewdrops do not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis. C: Lace handkerchief - Incorrect. Lace handkerchief does not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis. D: Mercury drops - Incorrect. Mercury drops do not accurately describe the colony morphology of Yersinia pestis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Facultative anaerobes. Facultative anaerobes can survive in both aerobic and anaerobic environments. In aerobic conditions, they use oxygen for energy production, while in anaerobic conditions, they can switch to fermentation or anaerobic respiration. A: Obligate aerobes require oxygen to survive and cannot survive in anaerobic environments. C: Obligate anaerobes cannot survive in the presence of oxygen and only thrive in anaerobic conditions. D: Microaerophiles require low levels of oxygen to survive and cannot thrive in fully aerobic or anaerobic conditions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Halophiles. Halophiles are bacteria that thrive in high-salinity environments due to their ability to tolerate high salt concentrations. They have adapted mechanisms to maintain osmotic balance and survive in such extreme conditions. Thermophiles (B) thrive in high-temperature environments, not high-salinity. Acidophiles (C) prefer acidic conditions, not high-salinity. Mesophiles (D) grow optimally at moderate temperatures and are not specifically adapted to high-salinity environments.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: scanning electron microscope. A scanning electron microscope provides a three-dimensional image of a specimen by scanning a focused electron beam across the surface of the specimen, detecting the electrons that are emitted from the surface, and creating a detailed image. This is achieved through the detection of secondary electrons, backscattered electrons, and X-rays emitted from the specimen surface. A dark-field microscope (choice A) utilizes oblique lighting to enhance contrast and is not specifically designed to provide a 3D image. A transmission electron microscope (choice B) uses a beam of electrons transmitted through a specimen to create a 2D image at high magnification. A bright-field microscope (choice C) is a basic microscope that illuminates a specimen with uniform light and does not provide a 3D image like a scanning electron microscope does.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Granuloma formation. In response to tuberculosis antigen (tuberculin), the immune system forms a granuloma at the injection site as a defense mechanism. Granulomas are organized collections of immune cells that wall off the antigen and prevent its spread. This process involves macrophages, T cells, and fibroblasts. Choice A (Cells cytotoxity) is incorrect because tuberculin test does not involve direct cell cytotoxicity. Choice B (Reagin type cytotoxity) is incorrect as reagin type hypersensitivity is associated with allergic reactions, not granuloma formation. Choice D (Immunocomplex cytotoxity) is also incorrect as immunocomplex cytotoxicity refers to tissue damage caused by immune complexes, not granuloma formation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Diarrhea. Brucellosis typically presents with symptoms such as arthralgia, headache, and undulating fever, but diarrhea is not a common symptom associated with the disease. Brucellosis is primarily characterized by systemic symptoms like fever, joint pain, and headache due to the bacterial infection. Diarrhea is more commonly seen in gastrointestinal infections rather than brucellosis. Therefore, the absence of diarrhea as a symptom in brucellosis helps in differentiating it from other diseases with similar clinical presentations.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Protozoans. Protozoans lack a cyst stage, which is a protective, dormant stage that allows them to survive in harsh conditions outside the host. Without a cyst stage, protozoans must be transferred quickly between hosts to avoid exposure to unfavorable environments. Molds (A) are fungi that reproduce through spores and do not have a cyst stage like protozoans. Helminths (C) are parasitic worms that have complex life cycles involving different hosts but do not rely on a cyst stage for survival. Viruses (D) are not considered protozoans and do not have a cyst stage, but they are not classified as protozoans.