ATI RN
foundations of nursing practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient was tested for HIV using enzyme immunoassay (EIA) and results were positive. The nurse should expect the primary care provider to order what test to confirm the EIA test results?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Western blot test. The Western blot test is considered the gold standard for confirming HIV diagnosis after a positive EIA result. It detects specific antibodies to HIV proteins, providing a more accurate confirmation. Other choices are incorrect because: A: Another EIA test would yield the same result as the initial EIA test. B: Viral load test measures the amount of virus in the blood and is not used to confirm HIV diagnosis. D: CD4/CD8 ratio is used to monitor immune status but not to confirm HIV diagnosis.
Question 2 of 9
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is the most common cause of retinal inflammation in patients with AIDS. What drug, surgically implanted, is used for the acute stage of CMV retinitis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: Ganciclovir is the correct answer for the acute stage of CMV retinitis in AIDS patients. It is an antiviral drug that specifically targets CMV. Ganciclovir works by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis, effectively controlling CMV replication in the eye. Pilocarpine (A) is a miotic used for glaucoma, not for CMV retinitis. Penicillin (B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viral infections like CMV. Gentamicin (D) is an antibiotic used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like CMV.
Question 3 of 9
An oncology nurse is contributing to the care of a patient who has failed to respond appreciably to conventional cancer treatments. As a result, the care team is considering the possible use of biologic response modifiers (BRFs). The nurse should know that these achieve a therapeutic effect by what means?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Focusing the patient's immune system exclusively on the tumor. Biologic response modifiers (BRMs) work by enhancing the body's natural defenses to target and attack cancer cells specifically. This approach helps the immune system to recognize and destroy cancer cells while minimizing harm to normal cells. A: Promoting the synthesis and release of leukocytes - This is not the primary mechanism of action for BRMs. While leukocytes play a role in the immune response, BRMs target the immune system's response to tumors. C: Potentiating the effects of chemotherapeutic agents and radiation therapy - While some BRMs may be used in combination with these treatments, their primary mode of action is not to enhance the effects of chemotherapy or radiation therapy. D: Altering the immunologic relationship between the tumor and the patient - This choice is too broad and vague. BRMs specifically aim to direct the immune response towards targeting the tumor cells, rather than altering the overall immunologic relationship
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is using Campinha-Bacote’s model of cultural competency to improve cultural care. Which actions describe the components the nurse is using?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: In Campinha-Bacote's model, the first component is "cultural awareness," which involves an in-depth self-examination of one's own background. Step 2: This self-examination helps nurses recognize their biases and assumptions, enabling them to provide culturally competent care. Step 3: By understanding their own culture, nurses can better understand and respect the cultural beliefs and practices of their patients. Step 4: This component is crucial for building trust and rapport with patients from diverse backgrounds. Step 5: Choices B, C, and D do not directly align with the cultural awareness component of Campinha-Bacote's model. B focuses on assessment, C on understanding diverse groups, and D on motivation, but they do not address the foundational self-examination required for cultural competency.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is using different toileting schedules.Which principles will the nurse keep in mind when planning care? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because habit training involves keeping a bladder diary to identify patterns and develop a toileting schedule. This helps in promoting regular voiding habits. B is incorrect because timed voiding isn't solely based on the patient's urge to void, but rather on a predetermined schedule. C is incorrect as prompted voiding involves reminding patients to use the restroom at regular intervals, not just asking if they are wet or dry. D is incorrect because elevating feet in patients with edema may help reduce swelling but has no direct impact on nighttime voiding.
Question 6 of 9
A patient who had premature rupture of the membranes (PROM) earlier in the pregnancy at 28 weeks returns to the labor unit 1 week later complaining that she is now in labor. The labor and birth nurse performs the NfollRowiIng aGssesBsm.eCntsM. The vaginal exam is deferred until the U S N T O physician is in attendance. The patient is placed on electronic fetal monitoring (EFM) and a baseline FHR of 130 bpm is noted. No contraction pattern is observed. The patient is then transferred to the antepartum unit for continued observation. Several hours later, the patient complains that she does not feel the baby move. Examination of the abdomen reveals a fundal height of 34 cm. Muscle tone is no different from earlier in the hospital admission. The patient is placed on the EFM and no fetal heart tones are observed. What does the nurse suspect is occurring?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hidden placental abruption. In this scenario, the patient had PROM and is now presenting with decreased fetal movement and absence of fetal heart tones after a fundal height increase. These signs suggest a hidden placental abruption, where the placenta has partially detached, leading to fetal distress and potential fetal demise. The absence of contractions rules out active labor (B) as the cause. Placental previa (A) would typically present with painless vaginal bleeding, which is not described in the scenario. Placental abruption (C) usually presents with painful vaginal bleeding, which is also not mentioned. Therefore, the most likely explanation for the symptoms described is a hidden placental abruption.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is planning health education for a patient who has experienced a vaginal infection. What guidelines should the nurse include in this program regarding prevention?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Avoid feminine hygiene products, such as sprays. This is because feminine hygiene products can disrupt the natural balance of vaginal flora, leading to an increased risk of vaginal infections. Tight-fitting synthetic underwear (choice A) can trap moisture and promote bacterial growth. Using bubble bath (choice B) can irritate the genital area and disrupt the pH balance. Restricting daily bathing (choice D) is not recommended as regular hygiene practices are important for preventing infections. In summary, choice C is correct as it promotes maintaining the natural vaginal flora and pH balance to prevent infections, while the other choices can contribute to an increased risk of vaginal infections.
Question 8 of 9
A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with signs of anaphylaxis following a bee sting. The nurse knows that if this is a true allergic reaction the patient will present with what alteration in laboratory values?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased eosinophils. Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions. During anaphylaxis, the body releases chemicals that stimulate the production and activation of eosinophils, leading to an increase in their count. This helps in the identification of an allergic reaction. Incorrect Choices: B: Increased neutrophils - Neutrophils are not specific to allergic reactions and are typically increased in bacterial infections. C: Increased serum albumin - Serum albumin levels are not directly affected by allergic reactions. D: Decreased blood glucose - Hypoglycemia is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction.
Question 9 of 9
After contributing to the care of several patients who died in the hospital, the nurse has identified some lapses in the care that many of these patients received toward the end of their lives. What have research studies identified as a potential deficiency in the care of the dying in hospital settings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Research studies have consistently shown that families' needs for information and support often go unmet in hospital settings when caring for dying patients. This is a crucial deficiency as effective communication and support for families can greatly impact the quality of care provided to the dying patient. When families are not adequately informed and supported, it can lead to increased stress, confusion, and dissatisfaction with the care provided. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific deficiency identified in research studies. While pain control, communication, and attention from caregivers are important aspects of end-of-life care, the primary focus in this scenario is on the unmet needs of families for information and support. Ignoring families' needs can have significant negative consequences on the overall care provided to the dying patient.