ATI RN
foundations of nursing test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient on the medical unit is dying and the nurse has determined that the familys psychosocial needs during the dying process need to be addressed. What is a cause of many patient care dilemmas at the end of life?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Denial of imminent death on the part of the family or the patient. This is a common cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life because denial can lead to unrealistic expectations, difficulty in making important decisions, and inadequate planning for end-of-life care. This can result in unnecessary suffering for the patient and added stress for the family. Incorrect choices: A: Poor communication between the family and the care team can contribute to challenges in providing appropriate care but may not be the primary cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life. C: Limited visitation opportunities for friends and family, while important for psychosocial support, may not directly cause patient care dilemmas. D: Conflict between family members can complicate decision-making processes, but it is not necessarily a primary cause of patient care dilemmas at the end of life.
Question 2 of 9
A patient, diagnosed with cancer of the lung, has just been told he has metastases to the brain. What change in health status would the nurse attribute to the patients metastatic brain disease?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Personality changes. Metastases to the brain can affect cognitive function and behavior, leading to personality changes. This is due to the impact on specific areas of the brain responsible for personality and behavior. Chronic pain (A) is more commonly associated with advanced cancer and not specific to brain metastases. Respiratory distress (B) is more likely related to lung cancer itself, not brain metastases. Fixed pupils (C) may indicate brainstem involvement, but personality changes are a more direct and common manifestation of brain metastases.
Question 3 of 9
A patient has presented with signs and symptoms that are consistent with contact dermatitis. What aspect of care should the nurse prioritize when working with this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Identifying the offending agent, if possible. This is prioritized in contact dermatitis to prevent further exposure and recurrence. By identifying the specific irritant or allergen, the nurse can guide the patient in avoiding it, leading to effective management. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while promoting adequate perfusion, safe use of topical antihistamines, and teaching the use of an EpiPen may be relevant in certain situations, they do not directly address the root cause of contact dermatitis, which is exposure to the offending agent.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse who works in an oncology clinic is assessing a patient who has arrived for a 2-month follow-up appointment following chemotherapy. The nurse notes that the patients skin appears yellow. Which blood tests should be done to further explore this clinical sign?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver function tests (LFTs). Yellow skin can indicate jaundice, a sign of liver dysfunction, often seen in patients with liver issues or chemotherapy-related liver toxicity. LFTs including bilirubin, ALT, AST, and ALP can help assess liver function. B: Complete blood count (CBC) and C: Platelet count are not directly related to yellow skin and would not provide information on liver function. D: Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine are tests for kidney function, not liver function. While kidney dysfunction can sometimes cause yellow skin, LFTs are more specific for assessing liver function in this context.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse preceptor is working with a student nurse.Which behavior by the student nurse will require the nurse preceptor to intervene?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because turning off the television is necessary for effective learning and communication between the nurse preceptor and student nurse. Watching TV can be distracting and disrespectful during the learning process. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because chewing gum, speaking clearly and loudly, and using at least 14-point print are behaviors that do not hinder the learning process and can be acceptable in a professional setting.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient newly diagnosed with a primary brain tumor. The patient asks the nurse where his tumor came from. What would be the nurses best response?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because primary brain tumors originate from cells within the brain itself. These tumors develop from abnormal growth of brain cells. Choice A is incorrect as primary brain tumors do not come from outside the central nervous system (CNS). Choice B is incorrect as primary brain tumors do not typically start in glands. Choice D is incorrect as primary brain tumors do not arise from nerve tissue elsewhere in the body. In summary, the nurse should explain to the patient that the tumor originated from cells within his brain to provide accurate information about the nature of primary brain tumors.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is completing a nutritional status of a patient who has been admitted with AIDS-related complications. What components should the nurse include in this assessment? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Serum albumin level. Serum albumin is an important indicator of nutritional status, as low levels may indicate malnutrition or inflammation commonly seen in AIDS patients. Weight history (B) is also relevant as weight changes can reflect nutritional status. White blood cell count (C) is not directly related to nutritional status. Body mass index (D) is a calculation based on weight and height, not a direct measure of nutritional status. Blood urea nitrogen (E) is a measure of kidney function, not a specific indicator of nutritional status. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on assessing the patient's serum albumin level for nutritional status evaluation in this case.
Question 8 of 9
The patient is having at least 75% of nutritional needs met by enteral feeding, so the health care provider has ordered the parenteral nutrition (PN) to be discontinued. However, the nurse notices that the PN infusion has fallen behind. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C - Taper infusion gradually): 1. Tapering the infusion gradually allows for a smooth transition off PN without causing metabolic disturbances. 2. Abruptly stopping PN can lead to hypoglycemia and electrolyte imbalances. 3. Increasing the rate may cause fluid overload or hyperglycemia. 4. Hanging 5% dextrose alone does not provide adequate nutrition and may not meet the patient's needs.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with preeclampsia is admitted complaining of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that these signs indicate
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient's symptoms of pounding headache, visual changes, and epigastric pain are classic signs of worsening preeclampsia, indicating a significant increase in blood pressure and potential progression to eclampsia (seizures). Immediate medical intervention is crucial to prevent complications. A: Gastrointestinal upset does not explain the combination of symptoms presented. B: Magnesium sulfate is used to prevent seizures in preeclampsia but does not cause these specific symptoms. C: Anxiety does not typically present with the specific physical symptoms mentioned.