ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient is non-compliant with prescribed medications and treatment plans. What is the nurse's best approach to address non-compliance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's best approach to address non-compliance with prescribed medications and treatment plans is to actively listen to the patient's reasons for non-compliance. By acknowledging and addressing any barriers or concerns the patient may have, the nurse can work collaboratively with the patient to find effective solutions. This approach promotes open communication, trust, and a patient-centered care plan that takes into consideration the patient's individual needs and circumstances. Dismissing the patient's reasons (choice A), ignoring the non-compliance (choice C), or resorting to a confrontational approach (choice D) are less effective strategies that may lead to further resistance and hinder the patient's willingness to engage in their treatment.
Question 2 of 9
In conducting a study on sleep, Nurse Trining was asked which of the types of research will be used should it involve collecting numerical data which is most often under considerable control. Her answer should be _________.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Quantitative research is the type of research that involves collecting numerical data, which can be easily quantified and analyzed statistically. It is characterized by its structured methodology, objectivity, and the ability to control variables to a considerable extent. In the context of a study on sleep, where data related to sleep patterns, duration, quality, etc., need to be measured and analyzed in a systematic manner, quantitative research would be the most appropriate choice. This type of research allows for a more precise understanding of the relationships and patterns within the data, providing valuable insights into the sleep-related factors being studied.
Question 3 of 9
The ability of a screening test to distinguish correctly between persons with and without a disease is knows as _________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Validity refers to the extent to which a test accurately measures what it is intended to measure. In the context of screening tests for diseases, validity is crucial in assessing whether the test can correctly distinguish between individuals who have the disease (true positives) and those who do not have the disease (true negatives). This includes the ability to minimize false positives (incorrectly identifying someone as having the disease) and false negatives (incorrectly identifying someone as not having the disease). Therefore, when assessing the ability of a screening test to distinguish correctly between persons with and without a disease, we are essentially evaluating its validity.
Question 4 of 9
A patient is brought to the emergency department experiencing a possible stroke. What initial diagnostic test for a stroke , usually performed in the emergency department would the nurse prepare the patient for?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the emergency department setting, the initial diagnostic test typically performed for a patient suspected of having a stroke is a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan of the head. This imaging study is crucial in evaluating and diagnosing stroke because it can quickly identify whether the person is having a hemorrhagic stroke (bleeding in the brain) or an ischemic stroke (blood clot blocking a blood vessel). The results of the CT scan help guide immediate treatment decisions, such as administering clot-busting medications for ischemic strokes or preparing for surgical interventions for hemorrhagic strokes. Carotid ultrasound studies and transcranial Doppler flow studies may be performed after the initial CT scan to further assess the extent of damage and the underlying cause of the stroke. The 12-lead electrocardiogram is useful in assessing the heart's electrical activity but is not the primary test for diagnosing stroke.
Question 5 of 9
A patient presents with progressive weakness, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations, primarily involving the upper and lower extremities. Over time, the patient develops difficulty swallowing and breathing. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The symptoms described are classic for amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), also known as Lou Gehrig's disease. ALS is a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, leading to muscle weakness and atrophy. Patients typically present with weakness, muscle atrophy, fasciculations (muscle twitching), and eventually develop difficulty swallowing and breathing due to involvement of the muscles responsible for these functions. Parkinson's disease (Choice A) is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia but does not typically present with muscle atrophy or fasciculations as described in the case. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) (Choice B) is an acute inflammatory condition affecting peripheral nerves, leading to ascending paralysis, which is usually reversible. Myasthenia gravis (Choice D) is an autoimmune disorder that affects neu
Question 6 of 9
A client with congestive heart failure has been receiving digoxin (lanoxin). Which finding indicates that the medication is having a desired effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Digoxin is a medication commonly used in the treatment of congestive heart failure because it helps to improve cardiac output and reduce heart failure symptoms. One of the desired effects of digoxin is an increase in urinary output. This is because digoxin helps to improve cardiac function, which can lead to better circulation and increased kidney perfusion. As a result, the kidneys are better able to filter and excrete excess fluid, leading to increased urine output. Therefore, an increase in urinary output indicates that the digoxin is having a positive effect in managing the client's congestive heart failure. The other options, such as increased weight, improved appetite, and increased pedal edema, are not indicative of a desired effect of digoxin therapy.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of pregnancy test?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The primary purpose of a pregnancy test is to confirm whether a woman is pregnant or not. Once pregnancy is confirmed, it is crucial for the individual to begin prenatal care as early as possible to ensure a healthy pregnancy and delivery. Early initiation of care can help monitor the health of both the mother and the developing fetus, detect any potential issues or complications early on, and provide necessary interventions or treatments. Therefore, the main objective of a pregnancy test is to enable early initiation of care for the pregnant individual.
Question 8 of 9
Mr. Steve is brought to the medical ward. the next day, he wants to know about his illness. The nurse on duty replied,'You don't need to know your diagnosis'. Which of the following rights of the patient is violated? Right to_____.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The right being violated in this scenario is the right to obtain from his physician complete current information concerning his diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis. Patients have the right to be fully informed about their health status and to understand the details of their condition, treatment options, and likely outcomes. Withholding this information can prevent the patient from participating in their own care decisions and can violate their autonomy and right to make informed choices about their health.
Question 9 of 9
A patient admitted to the ICU develops acute myocardial infarction (MI) with ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram (ECG). What intervention should the healthcare team prioritize to manage the patient's MI?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with acute myocardial infarction (MI) presenting with ST-segment elevation on ECG, the healthcare team should prioritize performing emergent coronary angiography for revascularization. This intervention, also known as primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI), involves opening up the blocked coronary artery responsible for the MI. Timely reperfusion of the affected artery is crucial in reducing myocardial damage and improving outcomes in acute MI patients. PCI is considered the preferred method for revascularization in patients with ST-segment elevation MI, as it has been shown to be more effective and associated with better outcomes compared to fibrinolytic therapy.