ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Study Guide Answers Questions
Question 1 of 5
A patient is having elective surgery under general anesthesia. Who is responsible for obtaining the informed-consent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The primary responsibility for obtaining informed consent lies with the surgeon who will be performing the procedure. Informed consent is a process where the healthcare provider explains the procedure, benefits, risks, and alternatives to the patient, allowing them to make an informed decision about their care. While other healthcare team members may also participate in this process, the ultimate responsibility typically rests with the surgeon as they are the one performing the surgery.
Question 2 of 5
A patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea and anxiety. Which intervention should the palliative nurse prioritize to address the patient's symptoms?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: When a patient with terminal cancer experiences dyspnea (difficulty breathing) and anxiety, opioid medications are often prioritized by palliative care providers for symptom management. Opioids are effective in relieving dyspnea by acting as respiratory depressants and reducing the feeling of air hunger. Additionally, opioids have sedative effects that can help alleviate anxiety and promote relaxation. Therefore, in this situation, prescribing opioid medications would be the most appropriate intervention to address both the dyspnea and anxiety symptoms simultaneously. Oxygen therapy, relaxation techniques, and breathing exercises may also be useful adjunctive interventions, but opioid medications are typically prioritized for immediate symptom relief in this context.
Question 3 of 5
A patient presents with a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax. The patient reports a history of chickenpox during childhood. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The presentation of a painful, vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the left thorax, specifically in a patient with a history of chickenpox, is most suggestive of herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles. Herpes zoster is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus responsible for chickenpox. After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve cells and can reactivate years later to cause shingles. The rash in herpes zoster typically progresses through different stages, including red patches leading to fluid-filled blisters. The characteristic rash typically appears unilaterally and is usually preceded by pain, burning, or tingling in the affected area. Unlike herpes simplex virus infection, which can cause similar lesions but is not typically localized to a specific dermatome, herpes zoster presents as a distinct unilateral cluster of vesicles along
Question 4 of 5
A patient presents with unilateral facial paralysis, inability to close the eye on the affected side, and loss of taste sensation on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Ramsay Hunt syndrome is caused by the varicella-zoster virus affecting the geniculate ganglion, leading to a triad of symptoms known as the Hunt syndrome: facial paralysis, ear pain, and a vesicular rash in the ear or palate. The facial paralysis in Ramsay Hunt syndrome is usually peripheral, similar to Bell's palsy, but may be more severe. In addition to facial paralysis, the patient may have the inability to close the eye on the affected side (lagophthalmos) and loss of taste sensation on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue due to involvement of the chorda tympani nerve. This differentiation is important to consider in the context of our patient's presentation.
Question 5 of 5
While performing the assessment your are guided that the organs found in the epigastrium include which of the following?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The epigastrium is the upper middle region of the abdomen, lying above the umbilical region and between the hypochondriac regions. It contains several organs including the duodenum, pancreas, portion of the liver, and the pyloric end of the stomach. The duodenum is the first part of the small intestine, the pancreas is a crucial organ for digestion and hormone regulation, the liver aids in digestion and detoxification, and the pyloric end of the stomach connects the stomach to the small intestine for further digestion and absorption of nutrients. These organs are typically assessed and examined when focusing on the epigastrium during a physical examination.
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