ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS). The nurse should encourage what health promotion activity to address the patients hormone imbalance and infertility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Weight loss. In PCOS, weight loss can help improve hormone balance and fertility by reducing insulin resistance and regulating hormone levels. Excess weight can exacerbate symptoms of PCOS. Kegel exercises (A) are beneficial for pelvic floor strength but do not directly address hormone imbalance. Increased fluid intake (B) is important for overall health but does not specifically target hormone imbalance. Topical antibiotics (D) are unrelated to PCOS treatment.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cottage cheese-like discharge. Candida albicans is a common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis, characterized by itching and cottage cheese-like discharge. This type of discharge is specific to a yeast infection. Yellow-green discharge (choice B) is indicative of trichomoniasis, gray-white discharge (choice C) is seen in bacterial vaginosis, and watery discharge with a fishy odor (choice D) is characteristic of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis. Therefore, the presence of cottage cheese-like discharge is a key indicator of a Candida albicans infection.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse knows of several patients who have achieved adequate control of their allergy symptoms using over-the-counter antihistamines. Antihistamines would be contraindicated in the care of which patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Antihistamines are generally considered safe during pregnancy, but it is recommended to avoid unnecessary medications, especially in the third trimester. Antihistamines should be used cautiously in pregnant women due to potential effects on the fetus. Choice A is incorrect because previous treatment for tuberculosis does not contraindicate the use of antihistamines. Choice C is incorrect as estrogen-replacement therapy does not interact significantly with antihistamines. Choice D is incorrect as a severe allergy to eggs does not directly contraindicate the use of antihistamines.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has just been told that her ovarian cancer is terminal and that no curative options remain. What would be the priority nursing care for this patient at this time?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Provide emotional support to the patient and her family. This is the priority as the patient has received devastating news and needs immediate support. Emotional support can help the patient cope with the diagnosis, express feelings, and make decisions. B: Implementing distraction techniques may not address the patient's emotional needs in this critical situation. C: Offering to inform the family of the diagnosis is important but not the priority at this moment. D: Teaching about maintaining a positive attitude may not be appropriate as the patient is facing a terminal illness.
Question 5 of 9
Examination of a newborn in the birth room reveals bilateral cataracts. Which disease process in the maternal history would likely cause this abnormality?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rubella. Rubella infection during pregnancy can lead to congenital rubella syndrome, which includes bilateral cataracts as a characteristic feature. Rubella virus can cross the placenta and affect the developing fetus. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) can also cause congenital cataracts, but rubella is more commonly associated with this abnormality. Syphilis can cause other congenital abnormalities but not bilateral cataracts. HIV does not typically lead to bilateral cataracts in newborns.
Question 6 of 9
A labor and birth nurse receives a call from the laboratory regarding a preeclamptic patient receiving an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. The laboratory technician reports that the patient’s magnesium level is 6 mg/dL. What is the nurse’s priority action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stop the infusion of magnesium. A magnesium level of 6 mg/dL is above the therapeutic range (4-7 mg/dL) for preeclamptic patients receiving magnesium sulfate. Continuing the infusion can lead to magnesium toxicity, causing respiratory depression, cardiac arrest, and neuromuscular blockade. Stopping the infusion is crucial to prevent further complications. Assessing the patient's respiratory rate (B) and deep tendon reflexes (C) are important, but stopping the infusion takes priority to prevent harm. Notifying the health care provider (D) is important but may delay immediate action to address the high magnesium level.
Question 7 of 9
A patient has been diagnosed with erectile dysfunction; the cause has been determined to be psychogenic. The patients interdisciplinary plan of care should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Psychotherapy. In the case of psychogenic erectile dysfunction, the underlying cause is psychological rather than physical. Psychotherapy helps address the mental health factors contributing to the condition, such as anxiety or relationship issues. It can help the patient understand and manage their emotions, thoughts, and behaviors related to the dysfunction. Penile implant (A) and PDE-5 inhibitors (B) are more appropriate for physical causes of erectile dysfunction. Physical therapy (C) focuses on musculoskeletal conditions and would not be effective for psychogenic causes.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is teaching a patient to care for her new ocular prosthesis. What should the nurse emphasize during the patients health education?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The need to perform thorough hand hygiene before handling the prosthesis. This is crucial to prevent infection. By washing hands thoroughly, the patient reduces the risk of introducing harmful bacteria or pathogens to the prosthesis, which could lead to infections or other complications. Incorrect Choices: A: The need to limit exposure to bright light - This is not directly related to caring for an ocular prosthesis. B: The need to maintain a low Fowlers position when removing the prosthesis - Positioning is not typically a concern when caring for an ocular prosthesis. D: The need to apply antiviral ointment to the prosthesis daily - Antiviral ointment is not a standard part of ocular prosthesis care unless specifically prescribed by a healthcare provider for a particular reason.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is admitting a patient to the unit who is scheduled to have an ossiculoplasty. What postoperative assessment will best determine whether the procedure has been successful?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Audiometry. Postoperative audiometry is the most appropriate assessment to determine the success of ossiculoplasty, as it evaluates the patient's hearing function and any improvements made by the surgery. Otoscopy (A) is a visual examination of the ear canal and may not provide comprehensive information on hearing. Balance testing (C) assesses equilibrium and is not directly related to the success of ossiculoplasty. Culture and sensitivity testing (D) of ear discharge is used to identify infections and would not directly indicate the success of the surgery.