ATI RN
foundation of nursing questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A patient got a sliver of glass in his eye when a glass container at work fell and shattered. The glass had to be surgically removed and the patient is about to be discharged home. The patient asks the nurse for a topical anesthetic for the pain in his eye. What should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Overuse of topical anesthetics can soften the cornea and damage the eye. Topical anesthetics numb the eye, masking pain and potentially leading to overuse. This can prevent the patient from recognizing potential issues like infection or further injury. Additionally, prolonged use can interfere with the cornea's ability to heal properly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific risks associated with using topical anesthetics in the eye. Option B focuses on peripheral vision loss, which is not a direct consequence of using topical anesthetics. Choice C mentions controlled substances, which is not relevant to the situation. Option D acknowledges the patient's request but does not educate the patient on the potential harm of overusing topical anesthetics.
Question 2 of 9
A patient has been admitted to the hospital numerous times. The nurse asks the patient to share a personal story about the care that has been received. Which interaction is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Narrative. The nurse is using a narrative interaction by asking the patient to share a personal story. This helps the patient express their experiences, emotions, and perspectives, promoting a deeper understanding of their care needs. A: Nonjudgmental is incorrect as it focuses on avoiding biases. B: Socializing is incorrect as it implies casual conversation. D: SBAR is incorrect as it stands for Situation, Background, Assessment, and Recommendation, used for concise communication in healthcare settings.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has been admitted for the treatment of AIDS. In the morning, the patient tells the nurse that he experienced night sweats and recently coughed up some blood. What is the nurses most appropriate action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Place the patient on respiratory isolation and inform the physician. This is the most appropriate action because the patient is exhibiting symptoms that could be indicative of a potentially infectious respiratory condition, such as tuberculosis or pneumonia. Placing the patient on respiratory isolation helps prevent the spread of infection to others and protects healthcare workers. Informing the physician promptly allows for further evaluation and appropriate treatment. Choice A is incorrect as Kaposi's sarcoma typically presents with skin lesions rather than respiratory symptoms. Choice B is incorrect as reviewing viral load and CD4+ count would not address the immediate concern of respiratory symptoms. Choice D is incorrect as oral suctioning is not the appropriate intervention for night sweats and coughing up blood.
Question 4 of 9
Anti-infective prophylaxis is indicated for a pregnant patient with a history of mitral valve stenosis related to rheumatic heart disease because the patient is at risk of developing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bacterial endocarditis. Mitral valve stenosis increases the risk of bacterial endocarditis due to turbulent blood flow and potential damage to the heart valve. Prophylactic antibiotics are recommended before certain procedures to prevent bacterial endocarditis in patients with underlying cardiac conditions. Choice A, hypertension, is incorrect as mitral valve stenosis does not directly increase the risk of developing hypertension. Choice B, postpartum infection, is not directly related to the risk associated with mitral valve stenosis. Choice D, upper respiratory infections, is not a specific risk associated with mitral valve stenosis in pregnant patients.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is discharging a patient home after mastoid surgery. What should the nurse include in discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "Don't blow your nose for 2 to 3 weeks." After mastoid surgery, blowing the nose can increase pressure in the surgical area and disrupt healing. Here's the rationale: 1. Blowing the nose can increase pressure in the surgical area and lead to complications. 2. Avoiding blowing the nose helps prevent infection and reduces the risk of damaging the surgical site. 3. It is essential to follow this instruction to promote proper healing and reduce the chances of postoperative complications. In summary, the other choices are incorrect because inducing a sneeze, exercising, and avoiding side-lying position do not directly relate to the specific care needs after mastoid surgery.
Question 6 of 9
A patient has a decreased gag reflex, left-sided weakness, and drooling. Which action will the nurse take when feeding this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Flex head with chin tuck. This position helps prevent aspiration by closing off the airway during swallowing. Flexing the head and tucking the chin promotes safe swallowing and reduces the risk of choking. Placing food on the left side (choice C) is not relevant to addressing the patient's symptoms. Positioning in semi-Fowler's (choice A) may not directly address the swallowing difficulty. Offering fruit juice (choice D) does not address the patient's specific feeding needs and may not be safe if the patient has swallowing difficulties.
Question 7 of 9
What should the nurse recognize as evidence that the patient is recovering from preeclampsia?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Increased urine output indicates improved kidney function, a key indicator of recovery from preeclampsia. Step 2: Adequate urine output helps regulate blood pressure and reduce swelling. Step 3: Consistent urine output >100 mL/hour signifies the kidneys are functioning properly. Step 4: Therefore, C is the correct answer as it directly reflects recovery progress from preeclampsia. Summary: A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly correlate with kidney function or recovery from preeclampsia.
Question 8 of 9
A woman calls the clinic and tells the nurse she has had bloody drainage from her right nipple. The nurse makes an appointment for this patient, expecting the physician or practitioner to order what diagnostic test on this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breast ultrasound. Bloody drainage from the nipple can be indicative of various conditions such as breast cancer. A breast ultrasound is a non-invasive imaging test that can help visualize any abnormalities in the breast tissue, including masses or tumors. It is commonly used to evaluate breast symptoms like nipple discharge. Radiography (B) is not typically used for evaluating breast conditions. Positron emission testing (PET) (C) is more commonly used in cancer staging and may not be the first-line test for this symptom. Galactography (D) is a specific imaging test used to evaluate the ducts of the breast and may not be the initial test for bloody nipple discharge.
Question 9 of 9
A patient, brought to the clinic by his wife and son, is diagnosed with Huntington disease. When providing anticipatory guidance, the nurse should address the future possibility of what effect of Huntington disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Emotional and personality changes. In Huntington disease, neurodegeneration affects the brain, leading to changes in behavior, emotions, and personality. These changes are characteristic of the disease progression. Metastasis (A) refers to the spread of cancer, which is not associated with Huntington disease. Risk for stroke (B) is not a typical manifestation of Huntington disease. Pathologic bone fractures (D) are not directly related to the primary symptoms of Huntington disease. Thus, addressing emotional and personality changes is crucial in providing anticipatory guidance for individuals with Huntington disease.