A client complains of sporadic epigastric pain, yellow skin, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and fatigue. Suspecting gallbladder disease, the physician orders a diagnostic workup, which reveals gallbladder cancer. Which nursing diagnosis may be appropriate for this client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticipatory grieving. This nursing diagnosis is appropriate because the client's symptoms, such as weight loss, fatigue, and diagnosis of gallbladder cancer, indicate a serious health condition that may lead to emotional distress. Anticipatory grieving involves feelings of loss and sadness related to an anticipated loss, such as the diagnosis of cancer. The client may experience fear, anxiety, and sadness due to the potential impact of the illness on their life. Choice B (Disturbed body image) is incorrect because the client's symptoms are more indicative of a serious health concern rather than body image issues. Choice C (Impaired swallowing) is incorrect as the symptoms described do not suggest difficulty with swallowing. Choice D (Chronic low self-esteem) is also incorrect as the symptoms are more likely related to physical health issues rather than self-esteem concerns.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Rationale: Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst) is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose. It works by replenishing glutathione, which helps neutralize the toxic metabolite of acetaminophen. Pentostatin, Fludarabine, and Auranofin are not antidotes for acetaminophen overdose and are used for different conditions. Acetylcysteine is the correct choice as it directly counteracts the toxic effects of acetaminophen.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The nurse should practice interviewing strategies. This is the best remedy because improving the nurse's ability to gather comprehensive information during client history will ensure sufficient data for planning interventions. By practicing interviewing strategies, the nurse can learn to ask relevant questions, actively listen, and probe for additional details. Summary: B: Modifying the data collection tool may not address the issue of insufficient information if the problem lies with how the nurse conducts the interview. C: Determining the specific purpose of data collection is important but may not solve the immediate issue of lacking information for intervention planning. D: Updating the database is irrelevant to the problem of inadequate data collection during client history.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Re-exposure to a specific antigen. Memory cells are formed after initial exposure to an antigen. Upon re-exposure to the same antigen, memory cells quickly recognize and respond, converting into plasma cells to produce antibodies. This process is known as secondary immune response. Incorrect choices: A: An organ transplant - Organ transplant does not involve the conversion of memory cells to plasma cells. C: Release of lymphokines - Lymphokines are signaling molecules secreted by immune cells but do not directly cause memory cells to convert to plasma cells. D: Initial exposure to an antigen - Initial exposure to an antigen leads to the formation of memory cells, not their conversion to plasma cells upon re-exposure.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A - Cerebral edema Rationale: 1. SIADH leads to water retention and dilutional hyponatremia. 2. Diuretic therapy aims to increase urine output and correct fluid imbalance. 3. If the client does not comply, excessive water retention can lead to cerebral edema. 4. Cerebral edema is a serious complication that can cause neurological deficits. Summary: - B: Severe hyperkalemia is unlikely as diuretics would help excrete excess potassium. - C: Hypovolemic shock is not expected as fluid restriction may prevent rapid volume loss. - D: Tetany is not a direct consequence of non-compliance with treatment for SIADH.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Correct Answer: C - ACTH Rationale: 1. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) can help control symptoms and induce remission in multiple sclerosis by reducing inflammation. 2. ACTH stimulates the production of cortisol, a natural anti-inflammatory hormone. 3. By reducing inflammation in the central nervous system, ACTH can help manage symptoms and promote remission. Summary of other choices: A: Acyclovir - Antiviral medication used to treat herpes infections, not effective for multiple sclerosis. B: Thyrotropin - Hormone that stimulates thyroid function, not used in the treatment of multiple sclerosis. D: Benadryl - Antihistamine used for allergies and itching, not indicated for multiple sclerosis management.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: fluid volume deficit. In diabetes insipidus, there is an excessive amount of dilute urine excreted, leading to dehydration and fluid volume deficit. The posterior pituitary tumor causes a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which regulates water reabsorption in the kidneys. As a result, the client experiences polyuria and polydipsia, leading to fluid volume deficit. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because diabetes insipidus does not cause fluid volume excess, incontinence, or diarrhea. The key is to recognize the pathophysiology of diabetes insipidus and its impact on fluid balance.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Emphasize the completion of the entire course of drug therapy. Empyema is a serious condition that requires antibiotic treatment. Emphasizing the completion of the entire course of drug therapy is crucial to ensure that the infection is completely eradicated and to prevent the development of drug-resistant strains. Teaching breathing exercises (choice A) may help improve lung function but is not the primary intervention for empyema. Offering assurance that empyema takes less time to resolve (choice B) is incorrect as it can mislead the client about the seriousness of the condition. Recommending a balanced but light diet (choice C) may be beneficial for overall health but is not directly related to treating empyema.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Metabolic acidosis is characterized by low pH and low plasma bicarbonate. 2. In this condition, there is an excess of acids or a loss of bicarbonate. 3. The kidneys are unable to adequately excrete acids or retain bicarbonate. 4. This leads to a decrease in bicarbonate levels and a decrease in pH. 5. Respiratory acidosis (A) is characterized by low pH and high CO2 levels. 6. Respiratory alkalosis (C) is characterized by high pH and low CO2 levels. 7. Metabolic alkalosis (D) is characterized by high pH and high bicarbonate levels. Summary: - Choice A is incorrect as it describes a condition with high CO2 levels. - Choice C is incorrect as it describes a condition with high pH. - Choice D is incorrect as it describes a condition with high bicarbonate levels. - Choice B is correct as it accurately describes the characteristics of a condition with low pH