ATI RN
health assessment practice questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 60-year-old man is at the clinic for an eye examination. The nurse suspects that he has ptosis of one eye. Ptosis is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: drooping of the upper eyelid. Ptosis refers to the drooping of the upper eyelid, which may occur due to weakened eyelid muscles or nerve damage. In this case, the nurse suspects ptosis in the 60-year-old man, which is likely due to age-related muscle weakness. Choice A, a cloudy cornea, is incorrect as it refers to a different eye condition. Choice B, an unequal red reflex, is incorrect as it is related to abnormalities in the retina. Choice D, protruding and bulging eyes, is incorrect as it indicates exophthalmos, a condition typically seen in thyroid eye disease.
Question 2 of 9
A patient is at the clinic because he has recently noticed that the left side of his mouth is paralyzed. He states that he cannot raise his eyebrow or whistle. The nurse suspects that he has:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bell's palsy. Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden weakness or paralysis of the facial muscles, resulting in drooping of the face, inability to raise the eyebrow or close the eye, and difficulty with facial expressions and functions like whistling. In this case, the patient's symptoms of left-sided facial paralysis point towards Bell's palsy as the likely diagnosis. Cushing's syndrome (A) is a hormonal disorder, Parkinson's syndrome (B) is a neurodegenerative disorder affecting movement, and a cerebrovascular accident (D) typically presents with more generalized neurological deficits rather than isolated facial paralysis.
Question 3 of 9
A mother who has brought her newborn infant for assessment tells the nurse that she has noticed that whenever her newborn's head is turned to the right side, the baby straightens out the arm and leg on the same side and flexes the opposite arm and leg. After confirming this on examination, the nurse would tell the mother that this is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: The described behavior is known as the asymmetric tonic neck reflex (ATNR), a normal infantile reflex. Step 2: The ATNR typically emerges around birth and should disappear between 3 and 4 months of age. Step 3: The reflex helps with hand-eye coordination and development of body awareness. Step 4: Choice A is incorrect as the behavior is not abnormal or related to atonic neck reflex. Step 5: Choice B is incorrect as the reflex typically disappears by 3-4 months, not by the first year of life. Step 6: Choice D is incorrect as it describes a different pattern of movement than what is observed in the ATNR. Summary: The correct answer is C because the behavior described is a normal infantile reflex that typically disappears between 3-4 months of age, aiding in the baby's development.
Question 4 of 9
During examination of a 4-year-old Aboriginal child, the nurse notices that her uvula is partially split. Which of the following statements about this condition is accurate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: This is a bifid uvula, which is a common occurrence in some Aboriginal groups. 1. A bifid uvula is a condition where the uvula is split or divided, which is a common variation seen in some Aboriginal populations. 2. Cleft palate is a different condition involving a gap in the roof of the mouth, not specifically related to Aboriginal people. 3. Uvular injury is not a common cause of a split uvula in children, so reporting to authorities is unnecessary. 4. Torus palatinus is a bony growth on the roof of the mouth and not related to a split uvula or specific to Aboriginal populations.
Question 5 of 9
During the examination of a patient in her third trimester of pregnancy, the nurse notices that the patient's thyroid gland is slightly enlarged. No enlargement had been noted previously. The nurse suspects that:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C is correct: 1. Enlargement of the thyroid gland during pregnancy is a normal finding due to hormonal changes. 2. The thyroid gland enlarges to meet the increased demands of thyroid hormone production. 3. This condition is known as gestational thyrotoxicosis and is usually benign. 4. No further testing is needed for thyroid cancer unless other concerning symptoms are present. Summary: A: Not relevant as iodine deficiency is not typically associated with thyroid enlargement in pregnancy. B: Incorrect as early signs of goitre would involve more pronounced symptoms than just slight enlargement. D: Unnecessary as thyroid cancer is not a common concern in this scenario of a slightly enlarged thyroid in the third trimester of pregnancy.
Question 6 of 9
During ear examination, the patient reports that he is hears a buzzing sound that is"driving me crazy!" The nurse recognizes that this symptom is:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: tinnitus. Tinnitus is the perception of sound without an external source, often described as ringing, buzzing, or hissing. In this case, the patient reporting a buzzing sound aligns with tinnitus. Vertigo (A) is a sensation of spinning or dizziness, not a sound perception. Pruritus (B) is itching, not a sound perception. Cholesteatoma (D) is a benign growth in the middle ear, not specifically related to sound perception. Therefore, tinnitus is the most appropriate choice based on the patient's symptom of hearing a buzzing sound.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse notices that the mother of a 2-year-old boy brings him to the clinic quite frequently for various injuries and suspects there may be some child abuse involved. The nurse should inspect the young child for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: bruising on the buccal mucosa or gums. This is the most relevant choice as it is a common sign of physical abuse in children. Bruising in unusual places or patterns, such as the mouth, should raise suspicion. Swollen, red tonsils (A) are more likely related to infection rather than abuse. Ulcerations on the hard palate (B) can also be due to various non-abuse related reasons. Small yellow papules along the hard palate (D) are typically harmless and not indicative of abuse. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize signs of potential abuse and take appropriate action to protect the child.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following assessment findings is most consistent with clubbing of the fingernails?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Clubbing of the fingernails is characterized by an increased angle between the nail base and the nail plate (usually 180 degrees or greater) and a spongy texture at the nail base. This is due to underlying tissue changes associated with conditions like lung disease. Choice D is correct as it accurately describes the characteristic findings of clubbing. Choices A, B, and C do not align with clubbing features. Choice A describes tenderness and firmness, not sponginess and increased angle. Choice B mentions a convex profile and ridges, which are not specific to clubbing. Choice C includes an angle of 150 degrees, which is less than the typical angle seen in clubbing.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following statements about the eustachian tube is true?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: It helps equalize air pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane. The eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx, allowing for pressure equalization. During activities like swallowing or yawning, the tube opens to allow air to flow in or out, maintaining equal pressure. This function is crucial for proper hearing and preventing discomfort or damage to the tympanic membrane. Choice A is incorrect as cerumen is produced by ceruminous glands in the ear canal, not the eustachian tube. Choice B is incorrect as the eustachian tube normally remains closed and opens only intermittently during specific actions. Choice C is incorrect as the eustachian tube does not connect the middle and outer ear; it connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx.