ATI RN
Jarvis Physical Examination and Health Assessment Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A 22-year-old architecture major comes to your office, complaining of severe burning with urination, a fever of 101 degrees, and aching all over. She denies any upper respiratory, gastrointestinal, cardiac, or pulmonary symptoms. Her past medical history consists of severe acne. She is currently on an oral contraceptive. She has had no pregnancies or surgeries. She reports one new partner within the last month. She does not smoke but does drink occasionally. Her parents are both in good health. On examination you see a young woman appearing slightly ill. Her temperature is 3 and her pulse and blood pressure are unremarkable. Her head, ears, eyes, nose, throat, cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal nodes shows lymphadenopathy bilaterally. On visualization of the perineum there are more than 10 shallow ulcers along each side of the vulva. Speculum and bimanual examination are unremarkable for findings, although she is very tender at the introitus. Urine analysis has some white blood cells but no red blood cells or bacteria. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. Which disorder of the vulva is most likely in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital herpes. The patient's symptoms of severe burning with urination, fever, lymphadenopathy, and multiple shallow ulcers along the vulva are classic for genital herpes. The new sexual partner and absence of red blood cells or bacteria in the urine support a sexually transmitted infection. The presence of white blood cells in urine and absence of other systemic symptoms help differentiate it from other choices. Condylomata acuminata (choice B) present as warty lesions and do not cause the systemic symptoms described. Syphilitic chancre (choice C) would typically present as a single painless ulcer and is unlikely given the multiple shallow ulcers described. Epidermoid cyst (choice D) does not match the clinical presentation of fever, burning with urination, and lymphadenopathy.
Question 2 of 9
You are assessing a patient for peripheral vascular disease in the arms, secondary to a complaint of increased weakness and a history of coronary artery disease and diabetes. You assess the brachial and radial pulses and note that they are bounding. What does that translate to on a scale of 0 to 3?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 3+. Bounding pulses indicate a 3+ strength on a scale of 0 to 3. This reflects increased blood flow or pressure in the arteries, which can be a sign of conditions like peripheral vascular disease. A strength of 0 indicates no palpable pulse, 1+ is weak and thready, 2+ is normal, and 3+ is bounding. In this case, the patient's history of coronary artery disease and diabetes may contribute to the increased blood flow, leading to bounding pulses. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the strength of the pulses based on the given assessment findings.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is true about cultural humility?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because cultural humility emphasizes recognizing power imbalances and fostering interpersonal sensitivity through partnerships with and learning from patients. This approach encourages self-awareness, openness, and willingness to engage in respectful dialogues. Option A is incorrect because cultural humility is not solely achieved through professional development courses. Option B is incorrect as anyone, regardless of their background, can practice cultural humility. Option D is incorrect as cultural humility does consider the impacts of structural factors on health disparities, including biological, socioeconomic, and racial influences.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following symptoms would be a clinical manifestation noted during the secondary stage of syphilis?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. During the secondary stage of syphilis, a rash marked by red or reddish-brown, penny-sized lesions over the palms and soles is a common clinical manifestation. This rash, known as a syphilitic rash, is a hallmark symptom of secondary syphilis. The rash can also appear on other parts of the body. It is important to note that syphilis progresses through distinct stages, and the secondary stage typically occurs a few weeks to a few months after the initial infection. Now, let's analyze why the other choices are incorrect: A: Absence of symptoms - This is incorrect as syphilis does present symptoms, especially during the secondary stage. B: Single painless lesion, chancre on the genital area - This is characteristic of the primary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage. D: Poor muscle coordination - This symptom is associated with the late or tertiary stage of syphilis, not the secondary stage
Question 5 of 9
What term describes the rhythmic, involuntary contractions of a muscle that can occur in patients with neurological conditions, such as cerebral palsy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Clonus. Clonus is a series of rhythmic, involuntary muscle contractions and relaxations that occur due to an abnormal response in the stretch reflex. In patients with neurological conditions like cerebral palsy, clonus is often observed due to increased muscle tone. Tremor (A) is a rhythmic shaking movement, not specifically associated with muscle contractions. Spasm (C) is a sudden, involuntary muscle contraction that is not typically rhythmic. Fasciculation (D) is a brief, spontaneous contraction of a small number of muscle fibers, not the rhythmic pattern seen in clonus.
Question 6 of 9
In healthy adults over 20, how often should blood pressure, body mass index, waist circumference, and pulse be assessed, according to American Heart Association guidelines?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Every year. Annual assessment aligns with American Heart Association guidelines to monitor these key health indicators regularly for early detection and management of potential cardiovascular risks. More frequent assessments (A) may be unnecessary and burdensome. Less frequent assessments (C, D) increase the risk of missing important changes in health status that could lead to adverse outcomes. Regular yearly assessments allow for timely interventions and adjustments to promote optimal cardiovascular health.
Question 7 of 9
A 16-year-old high school junior is brought to your clinic by his father. The teenager was taught in his health class at school to do monthly testicular self-examinations. Yesterday when he felt his left testicle it was enlarged and tender. He isn't sure if he has had burning with urination and he says he has never had sexual intercourse. He has had a sore throat, cough, and runny nose for the last 3 days. His past medical history is significant for a tonsillectomy as a small child. His father has high blood pressure and his mother is healthy. On examination you see a teenager in no acute distress. His temperature is 8 and his blood pressure and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of his penis, he is uncircumcised and has no lesions or discharge. His scrotum is red and tense on the left and normal appearing on the right. Palpating his left testicle reveals a mildly sore swollen testicle. The right testicle is unremarkable. An examining finger is put through both inguinal rings, and there are no bulges with bearing down. His prostate examination is unremarkable. Urine analysis is also unremarkable. What abnormality of the testes does this teenager most likely have?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Acute orchitis. Orchitis is inflammation of the testicle that can cause testicular enlargement and tenderness. In this case, the teenager presents with a swollen and sore left testicle, which aligns with the symptoms of orchitis. The patient's history of upper respiratory symptoms suggests a viral infection, which can lead to orchitis. The normal prostate exam and urine analysis rule out prostatitis. Acute epididymitis typically presents with pain and swelling in the epididymis, not the testicle itself. Torsion of the spermatic cord would present with sudden, severe testicular pain and is an emergency requiring immediate surgical intervention.
Question 8 of 9
Which of the following is true of a grade 4-intensity murmur?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: It is moderately loud. A grade 4-intensity murmur indicates a moderately loud murmur that is readily heard with the stethoscope lightly on the chest. This intensity suggests a significant level of turbulence in blood flow, typically indicating a more pronounced cardiac abnormality. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: It can be heard with the stethoscope off the chest - This is incorrect because a murmur would not be audible without the stethoscope. C: It can be heard with the stethoscope partially off the chest - This is incorrect as a murmur would still require direct contact with the chest for auscultation. D: It is associated with a "thrill" - This is incorrect as a thrill is a palpable vibration indicating turbulent blood flow and is not directly related to murmur intensity.
Question 9 of 9
You are palpating the apical impulse in a patient with heart disease and find that the amplitude is diffuse and increased. Which of the following conditions could be a potential cause of an increase in the amplitude of the impulse?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, cardiomyopathy. Cardiomyopathy is a disease of the heart muscle that can lead to an increase in the size and strength of the heart muscle, resulting in an increased amplitude of the apical impulse. This is due to the heart working harder to pump blood effectively. Hypothyroidism (choice A) typically does not cause an increase in the amplitude of the apical impulse. Aortic stenosis (choice B) and mitral stenosis (choice C) both result in pressure or volume overload on specific chambers of the heart, but they do not directly lead to diffuse and increased amplitude of the apical impulse like cardiomyopathy does. In summary, an increase in the amplitude of the apical impulse is more likely to be caused by cardiomyopathy due to the increased workload on the heart muscle, compared to the other conditions provided in the choices.