ATI RN
ATI RN Pharmacology 2023 IV Questions
Extract:
Question 1 of 5
What actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C,D,E
Rationale: The correct actions for the nurse to take are C, D, and E.
C: Advising the client to change positions slowly helps prevent orthostatic hypotension and potential falls.
D: Monitoring the client for dysrhythmias is important, especially if the client is taking medications that can affect cardiac function.
E: Checking the client for orthostatic hypotension is crucial to assess for potential adverse effects of medications.
Choice A is incorrect as it does not address potential side effects related to position changes.
Choice B is incorrect as restricting potassium intake may not be necessary based on the client's condition.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for phenelzine. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cheddar cheese. Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) that interacts with tyramine-rich foods, such as aged cheeses like cheddar. Tyramine can cause dangerously high blood pressure levels when combined with MAOIs. Sweet potatoes, orange juice, and canned tuna do not contain high levels of tyramine and are safe to consume with phenelzine.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has stable angina and a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches 0.8 mg/hr daily. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will take the patch off after dinner every night." This statement indicates understanding because nitroglycerin patches are typically worn for 12-14 hours, then removed for a 10-12 hour patch-free period to prevent tolerance. Removing the patch after dinner ensures a suitable time frame for effectiveness without interruption.
Choice B is incorrect because applying a new patch to the same site repeatedly can lead to skin irritation and reduced absorption.
Choice C is incorrect as cutting the patch compromises the controlled release mechanism and can cause an uneven dose.
Choice D is incorrect because applying a second patch without medical advice can lead to overdose and severe hypotension.
Question 4 of 5
A nurse is preparing to administer the initial dose of penicillin G IM to a client. The nurse should monitor for which of the following as an indication of an allergic reaction following the injection?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Urticaria. Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of an allergic reaction to penicillin. It presents as raised, itchy welts on the skin. Monitoring for urticaria is crucial as it indicates a potential allergic response, which can progress to more severe reactions like anaphylaxis. Dyspepsia (
A) refers to indigestion and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Bradycardia (
B) is a slow heart rate, which is not a common sign of an allergic reaction. Pallor (
C) refers to paleness of the skin and is a non-specific symptom that may not necessarily indicate an allergic reaction.
Therefore, the nurse should focus on monitoring for urticaria as a key sign of an allergic reaction to penicillin G IM.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for an epinephrine auto-injector. The nurse should instruct the client to take which of the following actions first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Jab the device into the outer thigh. This action is crucial because epinephrine needs to be delivered quickly in case of an allergic reaction. Jabbing the device ensures prompt administration, as opposed to massaging the thigh first (
A), seeking immediate medical attention (
C), or holding the injector in place (
D), which can delay the delivery of epinephrine and worsen the client's condition.